- #1
ammoun
- 5
- 0
Hi
When we have f(n) [itex]\in[/itex] o(g(n)) and g(n) [itex]\in[/itex] O(H(n))
Can I proove that h(n)-f(n) [itex]\in[/itex] o(g(n))?
Obviously I don't want you to give me the answer, but some hints and maybe which definitions of O and o I should use.
Thanks
When we have f(n) [itex]\in[/itex] o(g(n)) and g(n) [itex]\in[/itex] O(H(n))
Can I proove that h(n)-f(n) [itex]\in[/itex] o(g(n))?
Obviously I don't want you to give me the answer, but some hints and maybe which definitions of O and o I should use.
Thanks