- #1
mathmari
Gold Member
MHB
- 5,049
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Hey!
I want to show that when $\mu$ is a Borel measure in $\mathbb{R}$ with $\mu([0,1))=1$, which is a translation invariant, then it is also a Lebesgue measure.
I have shown that $\mu([a,b))=b-a, \forall a,b \in \mathbb{Q}$.
Is it enough to show that $\mu$ is a Lebesgue measure?? (Wondering)
I want to show that when $\mu$ is a Borel measure in $\mathbb{R}$ with $\mu([0,1))=1$, which is a translation invariant, then it is also a Lebesgue measure.
I have shown that $\mu([a,b))=b-a, \forall a,b \in \mathbb{Q}$.
Is it enough to show that $\mu$ is a Lebesgue measure?? (Wondering)