Is My Time Dilation Equation Correct?

In summary, the concept of time dilation in special relativity states that time is relative to the observer's frame of reference. This means that as an object moves at a constant velocity, time appears to slow down for that object in relation to a stationary observer. This phenomenon has been proven through various experiments and is a fundamental aspect of Einstein's theory of relativity.
  • #36
ghwellsjr said:
Yes, you could say that, if you pick a reference frame that is moving at 99.99% of light speed relative to us.

Remember, you can analyze any scenario from any reference frame you choose, none is preferred over any other, even the one in which we are at rest. That's the whole point of Special Relativity.

As you said, if u consider a reference frame which is moving at 99.99% of light speed relative to us has one observer in it.
Then the observer (in moving frame of reference) will feel our's time is dilating ... Am i right ..?

it is same for us also

because if we consider us as the reference frame, we can say that the observer is moving at 99.99% of light speed. So we will feel his time is dilating .


So time dilation seems to be illusion..

I know no one will agree this . But try to think in my point of view.
 
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  • #37
  • #38
svijay1991 said:
ghwellsjr said:
Yes, you could say that, if you pick a reference frame that is moving at 99.99% of light speed relative to us.

Remember, you can analyze any scenario from any reference frame you choose, none is preferred over any other, even the one in which we are at rest. That's the whole point of Special Relativity.
As you said, if u consider a reference frame which is moving at 99.99% of light speed relative to us has one observer in it.
Then the observer (in moving frame of reference) will feel our's time is dilating ... Am i right ..?

it is same for us also

because if we consider us as the reference frame, we can say that the observer is moving at 99.99% of light speed. So we will feel his time is dilating .


So time dilation seems to be illusion..

I know no one will agree this . But try to think in my point of view.
Following your logic: motion seems to be an illusion. Is that your point of view?
 
  • #39
svijay1991 said:
Thank u phinds

I was thinking, why those explanation are correct. But still i cannot understand the thing.
Iis there any practical example or application for time dilation.?

As MichaelC said, the most obvious practical use is GPS. Do you like driving in the forest or actually on the road? I prefer the road. Fewer trees to run into. If my GPS didn't understand time dilation, I would be driving in the forests.
 
  • #40
ghwellsjr said:
Following your logic: motion seems to be an illusion. Is that your point of view?

No. We cannot say whether the body is moving or not until we compare it with some other.

So the time is appear to be dilated for both stationary and moving observer by considering the cases i have mentioned earlier.

If time dilation is also relative(as motion) there will be no absolute time dilation.

This is what my point of view
 
  • #41
If time dilation is also relative(as motion) there will be no absolute time dilation.

To measure time dilation, bring clocks to the same worldline...that is the same place and time
and compare.

Note that relative velocity AND gravitational potential EACH cause time dilation.
 
  • #42
But try to think in my point of view.

Why?
I'd consider it if you view led to some new valid insight; otherwise it seems pointless.
 
  • #43
Naty1 said:
Why?
I'd consider it if you view led to some new valid insight; otherwise it seems pointless.

You meant to say, it is pointless
 
  • #44
svijay1991 said:
ghwellsjr said:
Following your logic: motion seems to be an illusion. Is that your point of view?
No. We cannot say whether the body is moving or not until we compare it with some other.

So the time is appear to be dilated for both stationary and moving observer by considering the cases i have mentioned earlier.

If time dilation is also relative(as motion) there will be no absolute time dilation.

This is what my point of view
As long as motion is inertial (no acceleration, no change in speed, no change in direction), then time dilation is also relative. But, like motion, if one of the bodies makes any of those kinds of changes, then there is a difference between the two bodies and we can make some absolute statements regarding their motions, can't we?

For example, if both bodies start out at rest with respect to each other, we can consider them to be motionless relative to each other. Then if just one of them accelerates, taking a trip at a high speed and returning to the other body and coming to rest with respect to it, we can absolutely say that the motions of the two bodies is different, can't we? In the same way, we can say that the time dilation is different for the two bodies, can't we?
 
  • #45
ghwellsjr said:
As long as motion is inertial (no acceleration, no change in speed, no change in direction), then time dilation is also relative. But, like motion, if one of the bodies makes any of those kinds of changes, then there is a difference between the two bodies and we can make some absolute statements regarding their motions, can't we?

For example, if both bodies start out at rest with respect to each other, we can consider them to be motionless relative to each other. Then if just one of them accelerates, taking a trip at a high speed and returning to the other body and coming to rest with respect to it, we can absolutely say that the motions of the two bodies is different, can't we? In the same way, we can say that the time dilation is different for the two bodies, can't we?
In your case we can say the motion of two bodies is different but we cannot say about its absolute motion because still it is relative . That is we know, among the two bodies one is moving (or accelerates) but, we cannot say which one is moving. It will be always relative irrespective of its motion type.
 
  • #46
svijay1991 said:
ghwellsjr said:
As long as motion is inertial (no acceleration, no change in speed, no change in direction), then time dilation is also relative. But, like motion, if one of the bodies makes any of those kinds of changes, then there is a difference between the two bodies and we can make some absolute statements regarding their motions, can't we?

For example, if both bodies start out at rest with respect to each other, we can consider them to be motionless relative to each other. Then if just one of them accelerates, taking a trip at a high speed and returning to the other body and coming to rest with respect to it, we can absolutely say that the motions of the two bodies is different, can't we? In the same way, we can say that the time dilation is different for the two bodies, can't we?
In your case we can say the motion of two bodies is different but we cannot say about its absolute motion because still it is relative . That is we know, among the two bodies one is moving (or accelerates) but, we cannot say which one is moving. It will be always relative irrespective of its motion type.
Are you saying that because one of the bodies accelerated, we can't say which one it is?
 
  • #47
svijay1991 said:
In your case we can say the motion of two bodies is different but we cannot say about its absolute motion because still it is relative.
Nope, the inertial and accelerating observer will observe a different Doppler pattern coming from the other observer. Both can determine which accelerated even if they do not have an accelerometer.
 
  • #48
Passionflower said:
Nope, the inertial and accelerating observer will observe a different Doppler pattern coming from the other observer. Both can determine which accelerated even if they do not have an accelerometer.

Ya now i agree with u. If the bodies undergoes uniform motion then can we able to distinguish the motion of the bodies.?
 
  • #49
ghwellsjr said:
Are you saying that because one of the bodies accelerated, we can't say which one it is?

Sorry george i made mistake there. I agree with u. We can distinguish motion in that case
 
  • #50
svijay1991 said:
Ya now i agree with u. If the bodies undergoes uniform motion then can we able to distinguish the motion of the bodies.?
For two bodies that never experience any acceleration, we can only assign relative motion between them which means there is no way to compare their clocks as all frames will have different definitions of their relative times.
svijay1991 said:
Sorry george i made mistake there. I agree with u. We can distinguish motion in that case
In that case, when one of the bodies accelerates away from the one that remained inertial, all frames will agree on the difference in the amount that their two clocks progress during the time they were separated.

In fact, as long as two bodies start out together and both accelerate in any manner and then rejoin at the same location or any other location, all frames will agree on the difference in the amount that their two clocks progress during the time they were separated.

How could it be otherwise?
 
  • #51
phinds said:
here's a simple one with graphics:

http://www.phinds.com/time%20dilation/
hello phinds

I have attached one picture to this and i tried to derive equation for time dilation from that.
please see and tell whether it is right or not ?
 

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  • #52
svijay1991 said:
hello phinds

I have attached one picture to this and i tried to derive equation for time dilation from that.
please see and tell whether it is right or not ?

Looks right to me, and not surprizing, since it's the standard formula although I think it's normally expressed in terms of T, not in terms of t
 

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