- #1
Bashyboy
- 1,421
- 5
Okay, I am currently reading about motion on inclined planes and how the normal force acts directly perpendicular to the surface of the plane and how the gravitational force, obviously, acts downwards. Since the two forces are not inflicted in opposing directions, we split the gravitational force into two vectors: the first vector acts perpendicularly against the surface and the second vector acts in parallel with the surface. So now where I am a sort of confliction is when it on as follows..." The perpendicular component of the force of gravity is directed opposite the normal force and as such balances the normal force." Do they mean there is an equilibrium, that the forces cancel each other out in accordance with Newton's Law, "For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction." And so the normal force is accounted?
Also would this be a good way to define friction, "The force of gravity acts directly downward on an object on a plane and the reason why two vectors are formed is because the force of gravity is pushing it into the plane, but since there is like charged atoms in the plane and the object it does not actually push into it, which is the reason why it slides and friction is formed because it digs into the surface."
I know it might not possibly be coherent, per se; but, by chance, do you see where I am going? Or is it just completely wrong conjecture?
Thank you.
Also would this be a good way to define friction, "The force of gravity acts directly downward on an object on a plane and the reason why two vectors are formed is because the force of gravity is pushing it into the plane, but since there is like charged atoms in the plane and the object it does not actually push into it, which is the reason why it slides and friction is formed because it digs into the surface."
I know it might not possibly be coherent, per se; but, by chance, do you see where I am going? Or is it just completely wrong conjecture?
Thank you.