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kalish1
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I would like to know if my following solution to a problem is valid or not.
**Problem:**
If $S$ is a sphere and $F$ satisfies the hypotheses of Stokes' theorem, show that $$\iint_{S}F\cdot ds =0.$$
**Solution:**
Stokes' theorem claims that if we "cap off" the curve $C$ by any surface $S$ (with appropriate orientation) then the line integral can be computed in terms of the curl. Solving mathematically, let $S$ be the surface of the sphere and be bounded by a curve $C$ and let $\vec F$ be the vector field which satisfies Stokes' theorem. Then, for every closed path $\int_{C}^{} \vec F \cdot \vec dr = 0$ because $\vec F$ is a conservative vector field in Stokes' theorem. Hence by Stokes' theorem we get $\int_{C}^{} \vec F \cdot \vec dr = \int_{}^{}\int_{S}^{} \vec F \cdot \vec ds = 0$ (from the definition of conservative field.)
I have cross-posted this question here and here:
http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/740899/validity-of-following-solution
Validity of following solution - Math Help Forum
**Problem:**
If $S$ is a sphere and $F$ satisfies the hypotheses of Stokes' theorem, show that $$\iint_{S}F\cdot ds =0.$$
**Solution:**
Stokes' theorem claims that if we "cap off" the curve $C$ by any surface $S$ (with appropriate orientation) then the line integral can be computed in terms of the curl. Solving mathematically, let $S$ be the surface of the sphere and be bounded by a curve $C$ and let $\vec F$ be the vector field which satisfies Stokes' theorem. Then, for every closed path $\int_{C}^{} \vec F \cdot \vec dr = 0$ because $\vec F$ is a conservative vector field in Stokes' theorem. Hence by Stokes' theorem we get $\int_{C}^{} \vec F \cdot \vec dr = \int_{}^{}\int_{S}^{} \vec F \cdot \vec ds = 0$ (from the definition of conservative field.)
I have cross-posted this question here and here:
http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/740899/validity-of-following-solution
Validity of following solution - Math Help Forum