- #1
rjvsngh
- 6
- 0
Given that the derivative of a linear function is the function itself, how do I make sense of the following:
Given f(x) = x. It's derivative is g(x) = f'(x) = 1. Is g(x) the same as f(x) in some way? Or have I got this wrong in some way. Is f'(x) really the derivative of a f(x) in the sense of the statement that "the derivative of a linear function is the function"?
Given f(x) = x. It's derivative is g(x) = f'(x) = 1. Is g(x) the same as f(x) in some way? Or have I got this wrong in some way. Is f'(x) really the derivative of a f(x) in the sense of the statement that "the derivative of a linear function is the function"?