- #1
LydiaAC
Gold Member
- 39
- 2
Hello friends:
I do not understand why when solving the undamped harmonic oscillator equation
dx/dt+w02x=Fcoswt I am allowed to neglect the homogeneous solution.
I read that in a damped harmonic oscillator if you let the time pass, the homogeneous solution will disappear and you will keep only the particular solution. But here is no damping!
What is exactly the mathematical justification to set both constants in the homogeneous solution to zero? Or is it an acknowledgment that undamped oscillators do not exist in the physical world and we think of them as having a differential damping, so in an infinite time, we will have the same that in a damped oscillator?
I am very confused.
Lydia
I do not understand why when solving the undamped harmonic oscillator equation
dx/dt+w02x=Fcoswt I am allowed to neglect the homogeneous solution.
I read that in a damped harmonic oscillator if you let the time pass, the homogeneous solution will disappear and you will keep only the particular solution. But here is no damping!
What is exactly the mathematical justification to set both constants in the homogeneous solution to zero? Or is it an acknowledgment that undamped oscillators do not exist in the physical world and we think of them as having a differential damping, so in an infinite time, we will have the same that in a damped oscillator?
I am very confused.
Lydia