- #1
agapito
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From elementary calculus it is known that
(lim x-->0) ((sin x)/x) = 1.
Is this result equivalent to (lim x-->0) sin x = x ?
If so, how is it proved? Many thanks for all guidance.
(lim x-->0) ((sin x)/x) = 1.
Is this result equivalent to (lim x-->0) sin x = x ?
If so, how is it proved? Many thanks for all guidance.