- #1
Euge
Gold Member
MHB
POTW Director
- 2,073
- 243
Here is this week's POTW:
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Let $(X,\mu)$ be a positive measure space. For $0 < p < \infty$, why is the mapping $\mathcal{L}^p(X,\mu) \to \mathcal{L}^1(X,\mu)$ sending $f$ to $\lvert f\rvert^p$, continuous?-----Remember to read the http://www.mathhelpboards.com/showthread.php?772-Problem-of-the-Week-%28POTW%29-Procedure-and-Guidelines to find out how to http://www.mathhelpboards.com/forms.php?do=form&fid=2!
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Let $(X,\mu)$ be a positive measure space. For $0 < p < \infty$, why is the mapping $\mathcal{L}^p(X,\mu) \to \mathcal{L}^1(X,\mu)$ sending $f$ to $\lvert f\rvert^p$, continuous?-----Remember to read the http://www.mathhelpboards.com/showthread.php?772-Problem-of-the-Week-%28POTW%29-Procedure-and-Guidelines to find out how to http://www.mathhelpboards.com/forms.php?do=form&fid=2!