- #1
Diophantus
- 70
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I am familiar with the standard rule of mixed partial derivatives in that the order in which you partially differentiate dosn't matter. I have just been considering whether the same rule applies if we take f(q,t) say where q=q(t) and we differentiate normally w.r.t t then partially w.r.t q. Is the order of these operations always immaterial in this case too? I can't find a counterexample but I havn't yet got a satisfactory insight into this problem.
Anyone want to enlighten me?
Anyone want to enlighten me?