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In Dummit and Foote on pages 265-266, a proof is given of the Chinese Remainder Theorem. They claim to proceed by induction, but I cannot see where the induction hypothesis is used.
It seems that they could proved the statement for k=2, and then reduced the statement for k>2 to k=2. Is this induction?
Thank you for your help.
It seems that they could proved the statement for k=2, and then reduced the statement for k>2 to k=2. Is this induction?
Thank you for your help.