Is the QED Action Invariant Under Gauge Transformation?

In summary, the conversation discusses the problem of showing that the QED action is invariant under gauge transformation. The attempt at a solution involves showing that the action remains unchanged under transformation of the fields and coupling terms. The first problem involves the use of coordinate-dependent functions and the second problem arises from incorrect definitions. The conversation concludes with a recommendation to refer to a different source for a better solution to the problem.
  • #1
Cirrus79
2
0
Hello,

I don't understand two steps in solution to the problem:

I. Homework Statement

Show that QED action is invariant under gauge transformation.

II. Relevant equations

QED action:

[itex]S= \int{d^{4} x \left[\overline{\Psi}\left(i\gamma^{\mu} D_{\mu} -m \right)\Psi -\frac{1}{4}F_{\mu \nu}F^{\mu \nu}\right]}[/itex]

Gauge transformation:

[itex]\Psi\rightarrow e^{-iQ\chi}\Psi[/itex]
[itex]A_{\mu}\rightarrow A_{\mu}+\frac{1}{e}\partial_{\mu}\chi[/itex]

III. The attempt at a solution

1. First I show that [itex]D_{\mu}\Psi\rightarrow e^{-iQ\chi}D_{\mu}\Psi[/itex]

[itex]D_{\mu}\Psi=(\partial_{\mu}+ieQA_{\mu})\Psi \rightarrow
\left[\partial_{\mu}+ieQ\left(A_{\mu}+\frac{1}{e}\partial_{\mu}\chi\right)\right]
e^{-iQ\chi}\Psi = [/itex]

[itex]=\left(\partial_{\mu}+ieQA_{\mu}+iQ\partial_{\mu}\chi\right)
e^{-iQ\chi}\Psi=[/itex]

[itex]=e^{-iQ\chi}\left(-iQ\partial_{\mu}\chi+ieQA_{\mu}+iQ\partial_{\mu}\chi+\partial_{\mu}\right)
\Psi=[/itex]
[itex]=e^{-iQ\chi}\left(\partial_{\mu}+ieQA_{\mu}\right)
\Psi=e^{-iQ\chi}D_{\mu}\Psi[/itex]

The problem is in the third line. Where does [itex]\partial_{\mu}[/itex] come from?
I get:

[itex](iQ\partial_{\mu}\chi)
e^{-iQ\chi}\Psi=\left(e^{-iQ\chi}iQ\partial_{\mu}\chi -e^{-iQ\chi}i^{2} Q^{2}\chi\partial_{\mu}\chi\right)\Psi[/itex]

What am I doing wrong?

2. Then I show that [itex] F^{\mu \nu}\rightarrow F^{\mu \nu}[/itex] and [itex]\overline{\Psi}\rightarrow e^{iQ\chi}\overline{\Psi}[/itex]

3. And finally:

[itex]\overline{\Psi}(i\gamma^{\mu} D_{\mu} -m)\Psi\rightarrow e^{iQ\chi}\overline{\Psi}(i\gamma^{\mu}e^{-iQ\chi}D_{\mu}-m)e^{-iQ\chi}\Psi=[/itex]

[itex]=e^{iQ\chi}\overline{\Psi}e^{-iQ\chi}(i\gamma^{\mu} D_{\mu} -m)\Psi=\overline{\Psi}(i\gamma^{\mu} D_{\mu} -m)\Psi [/itex]

Here is the second problem. I get:

[itex]\overline{\Psi}(i\gamma^{\mu} D_{\mu} -m)\Psi\rightarrow e^{iQ\chi}\overline{\Psi}(i\gamma^{\mu}e^{-iQ\chi}D_{\mu}-m)e^{-iQ\chi}\Psi=[/itex]

[itex]=e^{iQ\chi}\overline{\Psi}(i\gamma^{\mu}e^{-iQ\chi} D_{\mu}e^{-iQ\chi} -e^{-iQ\chi}m)\Psi =e^{iQ\chi}\overline{\Psi}e^{-iQ\chi}(i\gamma^{\mu} D_{\mu}e^{-iQ\chi} -m)\Psi [/itex]

I can't figure out what happens here.

I will be very grateful for your help.
 
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  • #2
that is one weird way of doing this

I don't understand your first problem since the derivative is there in the second line as well and all other previous lines. First thing to understand is that [tex] \chi [/tex] is a coordinate dependent function so its derivative is non trivial. The line you put up of your solution I'm sorry to say is nonsense

the second problem seems to be orthographic in nature or arising from bad definitions, it should be

[itex]
\overline{\Psi}(i\gamma^{\mu} D_{\mu} -m)\Psi\rightarrow e^{iQ\chi}\overline{\Psi}(i\gamma^{\mu}e^{-iQ\chi}D_{\mu}-me^{-iQ\chi}) \Psi
[/itex]

since [tex] \overline{\Psi }' (i\gamma^{\mu} D'_{\mu} -m)\Psi ' = e^{iQ\chi}\overline{\Psi}(i\gamma^{\mu}D'_{\mu}-m)e^{-iQ\chi} \Psi [/tex]

and you have already shown that [tex] D'_{\mu} \Psi ' = e^{-iQ\chi} D_{\mu} \Psi [/tex]
 
  • #3
sgd37 said:
that is one weird way of doing this

Can you provide a reference to better solution for this problem? This one is from lecture notes.

sgd37 said:
First thing to understand is that [tex] \chi [/tex] is a coordinate dependent function so its derivative is non trivial.

This made me think, and i realized that I should use (fg)'=f'g+fg' to the first [itex] \partial _{\mu} [/itex] not the second one. Now I get it.

sgd37 said:
the second problem seems to be orthographic in nature or arising from bad definitions, it should be

[itex]
\overline{\Psi}(i\gamma^{\mu} D_{\mu} -m)\Psi\rightarrow e^{iQ\chi}\overline{\Psi}(i\gamma^{\mu}e^{-iQ\chi}D_{\mu}-me^{-iQ\chi}) \Psi
[/itex]

since [tex] \overline{\Psi }' (i\gamma^{\mu} D'_{\mu} -m)\Psi ' = e^{iQ\chi}\overline{\Psi}(i\gamma^{\mu}D'_{\mu}-m)e^{-iQ\chi} \Psi [/tex]

and you have already shown that [tex] D'_{\mu} \Psi ' = e^{-iQ\chi} D_{\mu} \Psi [/tex]

Of course. I tried to transform [tex]\Psi [/tex] twice.

Thank you very much!
 
  • #4
With all due respect, but the problem you're trying to solve is logically circular. The Noether procedure to couple the free fields specifically uses the invariance of the overall coupled action to derive the coupling term. Otherwise, the [itex] j^{\mu}A_{\mu} [/itex] coupling couldn't be derived.
 
  • #5
I think you're turning a simple exercise into something it was never intended to demonstrate
 

FAQ: Is the QED Action Invariant Under Gauge Transformation?

What is gauge invariance in QED action?

Gauge invariance is a fundamental principle in quantum electrodynamics (QED) that states that the physical predictions of a theory should not depend on the specific choice of gauge used to describe the theory.

Why is gauge invariance important in QED?

Gauge invariance is important in QED because it ensures that the theory is consistent with the principles of relativity and can accurately describe the behavior of particles and their interactions.

How does gauge invariance affect the QED action?

The QED action is written in a way that is invariant under gauge transformations, meaning that the equations of motion and physical predictions remain unchanged regardless of the specific choice of gauge.

What is the significance of gauge fixing in QED?

Gauge fixing is a mathematical technique used in QED to choose a specific gauge for the theory. This allows for easier calculations and simplifies the equations of motion, but the physical predictions must still be gauge invariant.

Can gauge invariance be violated in QED?

In theory, it is possible for gauge invariance to be violated in QED, but this has not been observed in experimental data. If gauge invariance were to be violated, it would require a revision of our understanding of the fundamental principles of the universe.

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