- #1
eoghan
- 210
- 7
Hi,
I've read a lot of posts about how Weinberg describes the S-matrix invariance in his book, but none of theme answered my questions.
At page 116, sec 3.3 - "Lorentz Invariance" of Quantum theory of fields vol.1 Weinberg says:
"Since the operator [itex]U(\Lambda, a)[/itex] is unitary we may write
[tex]
S_{\beta\,\alpha}=\langle\Psi_{\beta}^-\mid\Psi_{\alpha}^+\rangle
=\langle\Psi_{\beta}^- \mid U^{\dagger}U\mid \Psi_{\alpha}^+\rangle
[/tex]
From this equation he gets some conditions that the S-matrix has to fulfill.
But if the operator [itex]U(\Lambda, a)[/itex] is unitary, then shouldn't be
[itex]U^{\dagger}U=1[/itex]?
And so the equation above is always satisfied no matter the form of the S matrix!
I've read a lot of posts about how Weinberg describes the S-matrix invariance in his book, but none of theme answered my questions.
At page 116, sec 3.3 - "Lorentz Invariance" of Quantum theory of fields vol.1 Weinberg says:
"Since the operator [itex]U(\Lambda, a)[/itex] is unitary we may write
[tex]
S_{\beta\,\alpha}=\langle\Psi_{\beta}^-\mid\Psi_{\alpha}^+\rangle
=\langle\Psi_{\beta}^- \mid U^{\dagger}U\mid \Psi_{\alpha}^+\rangle
[/tex]
From this equation he gets some conditions that the S-matrix has to fulfill.
But if the operator [itex]U(\Lambda, a)[/itex] is unitary, then shouldn't be
[itex]U^{\dagger}U=1[/itex]?
And so the equation above is always satisfied no matter the form of the S matrix!