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roto25
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How would you prove, using the integral product, that the set of {cos x, cos 2x, cos 3x, cos 4x, ...} is an orthogonal set?
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Bavid said:over the interval -pi to pi, the integral of cos(mx)cos(nx)dx is zero, as long as m and n are integers. Therefore, if you select ANY pair of elements from the set, the 'integral of their product' will be zero, thereby satisfying the condition of orthogonality.
A set is considered orthogonal if all of its elements are orthogonal to each other. In other words, the inner product of any two elements in the set is equal to 0.
To prove that a set is orthogonal, you must show that the inner product of any two elements in the set is equal to 0. This can be done through various methods such as using the definition of orthogonality, the Gram-Schmidt process, or the Pythagorean theorem.
No, a set cannot contain both orthogonal and non-orthogonal elements. If even one element in the set is not orthogonal to another element, then the entire set is not considered orthogonal.
No, orthogonality and independence are not the same. While a set of orthogonal vectors is always linearly independent, a set of linearly independent vectors is not always orthogonal. However, in certain cases, orthogonality can imply independence.
Proving that a set is orthogonal is important in various areas of mathematics and science, such as linear algebra, signal processing, and quantum mechanics. Orthogonal sets have useful properties that make calculations and analyses easier, and they also allow for the simplification of complex systems and models.