- #36
phoenixthoth
- 1,605
- 2
which of the following is what you're writing:There exists member S in P(N)) which includes ALL members of N that have no image Included in the P(N) members which they are mapped with, for example:
1 <--> {2,3} , 2 <--> {2,3,4} , 3 <-->{6,7} , 4 <--> {4,5,6} , 5 <--> {8,9}, …
In this example S ={1,3,5,…}.
1. S={n in N such that f(n) is not a member of f(n)}
2. S={n in N such that n is not a member of f(n)}
3. something else?
in case 1, S=N but I'm not sure. are there any sets that are members of themselves? if not, which i think is the case, then S=N. in case 2, i think S could be made into any subset of N with the right f, including the empty set. if f(n)={n}, in case 2, then S=Ø. it is not the case that S has at least one member for every f. if f(n)=Ø for all n, then S=N.Bucause {} does not exist in N, but {} exists in P(N), then S have at least one member of N, for example:
n <--> {}
In this example S ={n}.
didn't you just say that S={n}? doesn't that mean n is in S?t is some arbitrary member of N.
In this case we can ask: is t in S or t not in S ?
Options:
1) t in S , but by S definition t cannot be in S .
2) t not in S , in this case by S definition, t must be in S , but by (1) t can’t be in S .
and so on, and so on.
As we can see, both options lead us to logical contradiction.
Therefore, there cannot be a bijection between P(N) and N and we can conclude that P(N) > S .
Q.E.D
"t in S , but by S definition t cannot be in S ." your example:
1 <--> {2,3} , 2 <--> {2,3,4} , 3 <-->{6,7} , 4 <--> {4,5,6} , 5 <--> {8,9}, …
In this example S ={1,3,5,…}
if t=1, then t is in S. it is not the case that t cannot be in S by definition, at least not the case for an arbitrary t.
but supposing that t is in S if and only if t is not in S, which is a contradiction, how is this contradiction logically dependent on the assumption that there was a bijection from N to P(N)? it doesn't seem to be used anywhere that the map is a bijection. since this contradiction is not the logical consequence of the assumption that there is a bijection from N to P(N), the contradiction does not prove that there is no bijection from N to P(N).
the statement that leads to a contradiction is that the map is onto. since S is a subset of N, it is an element of P(N). if the map is supposed to be onto P(N), that means n must be mapped onto S for some n in N. show that if this were true, there would be a contradiction. this contradiction is good because it followed from assuming the map from N to P(N) was a bijection which lead to saying it is onto.
earlier, you said that {} is not in N. "Bucause {} does not exist in N..." but here, you're saying 0={} is in N. it doesn't matter. you said {} is not in N to try to prove S is nonempty. (a) S may be empty and (b) it doesn't matter if S is empty because (c) S, whatever it is, is not mapped to by any function from N to P(N) and, consequently, any function from N to P(N) is not onto.By using the empty set (with the Von Neumann Hierarchy), we can construct the set of all *positive* [non-negative] integers {0,1,2,3,...}:
0 = { }