Is there a ket to correspond to every bra?

  • I
  • Thread starter microsansfil
  • Start date
In summary, the Riesz representation theorem allows for a natural correspondence between kets and bras in a Hilbert space, but when considering a subset of kets, there can be more bras than kets and this leads to the concept of rigged Hilbert spaces. This allows for the use of distributions as bras and the introduction of weak eigenvectors for certain operators. Cohen-Tannoudji et al. discuss this in their textbook, but the details can be technical.
  • #1
microsansfil
325
43
Hi all

The existence of a scalar product in an Hilbert Space E enable us to show that we can associate, with every ket | V >, an element of E * (Dual space), that is, a bra, which will be denoted by < V |

Is it possible to find bras which have no corresponding kets ?

Best Regards
Patrick
 
Physics news on Phys.org
  • #2
microsansfil said:
Hi all

The existence of a scalar product in an Hilbert Space E enable us to show that we can associate, with every ket | V >, an element of E * (Dual space), that is, a bra, which will be denoted by < V |

Is it possible to find bras which have no corresponding kets ?

Best Regards
Patrick

See:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Riesz_representation_theorem

Note the last comment about QM.
 
  • #3
PeroK said:
See:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Riesz_representation_theorem

Note the last comment about QM.
Thank.

Why in the textbook "Quantum Mechanics Vol 1 Cohen Tannoudji" it is show that it's possible to find a bra that can exist without ket corresponding to it ? This example would only be relevant in a specific mathematical context where the Riesz representation theorem doesn't apply ?

upload_2018-1-14_10-10-49.png

upload_2018-1-14_10-16-35.png


Best regards
Patrick
 

Attachments

  • upload_2018-1-14_10-10-49.png
    upload_2018-1-14_10-10-49.png
    26.5 KB · Views: 928
  • upload_2018-1-14_10-16-35.png
    upload_2018-1-14_10-16-35.png
    41.7 KB · Views: 968
  • #4
I'm not familiar with that text, so it's a lot of work to go through that. The gist of what is going on is this.

He has a linear functional defined by ##\phi(\psi) = \psi(0)##. This is, however, not a continuous linear functional, so the Riesz theorem does not apply.

More specifically, he has a sequence of bras that in the limit pick out the value ##\psi(0)## and concludes that he has a well-defined bra. But, the sequence of kets is a sequence that leads to the Dirac Delta function, which is not a well-defined function.

This leads into the concept of "rigged" Hilbert spaces, which is needed to resolve this - although, to be honest, I have never studied rigged Hilbert spaces myself.

In summary, although he appears to be generating a bra that has no ket, the bra doesn't meet all the conditions of a bra if done rigorously - it's not continuous. So, both the bra and the ket lie outside the normal theory of Hilbert spaces and continuous linear functionals.

I'm tempted to say that this is an example of a physicist trying to be rigorous and creating a bit of a mess!
 
  • Like
Likes dextercioby
  • #5
Thank you for these clarifications

Best regards
Patrick
 
  • #6
microsansfil said:
Is it possible to find bras which have no corresponding kets ?k

It depends what one means by "ket" and "bra".

If by "ket" we mean any elements of a particular separable Hilbert space ##H##, then, as @PeroK noted, the Riesz representation theorem gives a natural bijection between the space of continuous linear functionals, ##H'##, on ##H##. In other words, if by "bra" we mean any element of ##H'##, then there is a natural bijection between the space of bras and the space of kets.

If, however, we take the space of kets to be ##S##, a proper subset of ##H##, then the set ##S'## of continuous linear functionals on ket space ##S## is "larger" than ##H'##. This is because a mapping that is continuous on all of ##H## is automatically continuous on ##S##, since ##S \subset H##, but a mapping that is continuous on ##S## does not have to continuous on elements in ##H## that are outside of ##S##, i.e., we have a rigged Hilbert space (also mentioned by @PeroK, and also called a Gelfand triple)
$$S \subset H = H' \subset S'.$$
In other words, if by "bra" we mean any element of ##S'##, then there are "more" bras than kets.

IF this is done in a particular way, then included in the bra space ##S'## are delta functions and plane waves, so this allows physicists to work with distributions as "bras", and these can be used as weak eigenvectors of, e.g., the position and momentum operators.

This is what Cohen-Tannoudji et al. are trying to get at, but I don't have time to work through their technical details.
 
  • Like
Likes kith, dextercioby and PeroK
  • #7
George Jones said:
This is what Cohen-Tannoudji et al. are trying to get at, but I don't have time to work through their technical details.
Thank you. It's enough clear for my understanding.

Best regards
Patrick
 

FAQ: Is there a ket to correspond to every bra?

Is the concept of "ket to correspond to every bra" related to quantum mechanics?

Yes, the concept of "ket to correspond to every bra" is a fundamental concept in quantum mechanics. It is used to represent the states of quantum systems and their corresponding measurements or observations.

How are kets and bras related?

Kets and bras are mathematical representations of quantum states. A ket represents a quantum state and a bra represents the dual of that state. They are related by the bra-ket notation, also known as the Dirac notation, which is used to represent inner products in quantum mechanics.

What is the significance of having a ket to correspond to every bra?

The concept of having a ket to correspond to every bra is important in quantum mechanics because it allows us to describe the evolution of quantum states and calculate probabilities of obtaining certain measurements. It also helps us understand the duality of quantum states and their corresponding observables.

Are there any exceptions to the rule of "ket to correspond to every bra"?

In general, the rule of "ket to correspond to every bra" holds true in quantum mechanics. However, there are certain scenarios, such as in infinite-dimensional Hilbert spaces, where this rule may not hold. In these cases, more advanced mathematical techniques are used to represent quantum states.

How does the concept of "ket to correspond to every bra" relate to quantum entanglement?

The concept of "ket to correspond to every bra" is closely related to quantum entanglement. In entangled quantum states, the kets of two or more particles are correlated with each other, and thus, each ket has a corresponding bra. This allows for the measurement of one particle to affect the measurement of the other, no matter how far apart they are, which is a phenomenon known as quantum entanglement.

Similar threads

Replies
7
Views
1K
Replies
3
Views
1K
Replies
20
Views
9K
Replies
1
Views
2K
Replies
10
Views
1K
Replies
3
Views
2K
Back
Top