- #1
leinadle
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The explanation for this is probably very trivial, but I am not seeing it. I'm reading through Ramamurti's "Basic Training in Mathematics" and in the Multivariable Calculus section for spherical coordinates he says
and then shows an integral. Shouldn't there be a negative sign before the cosθ? And how is this equal to dz?
Thanks in advance
Using the fact that sinθdθ = dcosθ = dz
and then shows an integral. Shouldn't there be a negative sign before the cosθ? And how is this equal to dz?
Thanks in advance