- #1
happysmiles36
- 54
- 2
From the Intermediate Value Theorem, is it guaranteed that there is a root of the given equation in the given interval?
cos(x)=x, (0,1)
cos(0)= 1
cox(1)= 0.540...
So using intermediate value theorem, no.
and
x=0 can't be possible because 0 was excluded in the domain by the round bracket so 0<x<1. Therefore there can't be a root. In other words the domain makes it so the graph is discontinuous at 0 (f(0) does not exist) and if the graph/function doesn't at that point there cannot be a root there.
The answer is yes, but I am struggling to understand why and I am not sure if the books answer is wrong or if I'm wrong.
*I also don't know why cos(x) = x , because when x=1 they aren't equal and would only be true at 1 point in this domain (when x=~0.79).
cos(x)=x, (0,1)
cos(0)= 1
cox(1)= 0.540...
So using intermediate value theorem, no.
and
x=0 can't be possible because 0 was excluded in the domain by the round bracket so 0<x<1. Therefore there can't be a root. In other words the domain makes it so the graph is discontinuous at 0 (f(0) does not exist) and if the graph/function doesn't at that point there cannot be a root there.
The answer is yes, but I am struggling to understand why and I am not sure if the books answer is wrong or if I'm wrong.
*I also don't know why cos(x) = x , because when x=1 they aren't equal and would only be true at 1 point in this domain (when x=~0.79).
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