- #1
Kevin_spencer2
- 29
- 0
Is Lorentz group correct?, my question is let's be a group A so the Lorentz Groups is a subgroups of it so [tex] A>L [/tex] (L=Lorentz group , G= Galilean group) of course if we had an element tending to 0 so:
[tex] A(\hbar)\rightarrow L [/tex] (Group contraction)
so for small h the groups A and L are the same and the laws of physics are invariant under L or A transform, but a pure quantum level when Planck's h is different from 0 the A and L group would be completely different.
this 'Group contraction' would be an analogue of:
[tex] L(\beta)\rightarrow G [/tex] where 'beta' is v/c for small velocities we find that law of physics are invariant under Galilean or Lorentz transform.
the question is what would be the 'A' group?, could we find a group A so contracted in elements b=v/c or e=h gives us the Lorentz or Galiean groups and that the transformations (Lorentz, galilean,..) are linear?.
[tex] A(\hbar)\rightarrow L [/tex] (Group contraction)
so for small h the groups A and L are the same and the laws of physics are invariant under L or A transform, but a pure quantum level when Planck's h is different from 0 the A and L group would be completely different.
this 'Group contraction' would be an analogue of:
[tex] L(\beta)\rightarrow G [/tex] where 'beta' is v/c for small velocities we find that law of physics are invariant under Galilean or Lorentz transform.
the question is what would be the 'A' group?, could we find a group A so contracted in elements b=v/c or e=h gives us the Lorentz or Galiean groups and that the transformations (Lorentz, galilean,..) are linear?.