- #1
eljose79
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Euler proved that the infinite product
1/1-p**(-s) with p running over all primes was equal to R(s) where R(s) is teh Riemman z function my question is if the product:
1/1-exp(-sp) over all primes would be hte same as summing the series
1+exp(-s)+exp(-2s)+..=1/1+exp(-s) or what would be the equality...thanks.
1/1-p**(-s) with p running over all primes was equal to R(s) where R(s) is teh Riemman z function my question is if the product:
1/1-exp(-sp) over all primes would be hte same as summing the series
1+exp(-s)+exp(-2s)+..=1/1+exp(-s) or what would be the equality...thanks.