Is there any symmetry I can use to find this Fourier sine series?

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To find the Fourier sine series (FSS) of the function f(x) = x(π² - x²), symmetry plays a crucial role, as the function is odd. This allows for the use of a half-range sine expansion, eliminating cosine terms from the series. The integration required involves using integration by parts (IBP), and it is advised to handle the integral as a single expression rather than splitting it into two parts. A correction to the integrand is noted, emphasizing the importance of proper notation in calculations. Overall, understanding the function's symmetry simplifies the process of finding the FSS.
richyw
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Homework Statement



I am going over a practice exam, and I need to find the FSS of f(x)=x(\pi^2-x^2)

Homework Equations


f(x) \sim \sum^\infty_{n=1}a_n sin\left(\frac{n \pi x}{L}\right)
a_n=\frac{2}{L}\int^L_0 f(x)sin\left(\frac{n\pi x}{L}\right)dx

The Attempt at a Solution


I think I need to integrate\frac{2}{\pi}\int^\pi_0 x(\pi^2-x^2)sin(n\pi)dxwhich is two integrals, the first one would need me to use IBP once, and the second one would need me to use IBP three times. This is on a practice exam (and my exam is in an hour), so I am guessing that this integral is easier if I can find some symmetry in it. Is this true?
 
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You can indeed use symmetry. Graph f(x) on your calc: what do you notice? remember if x(t)=x(-t) then there is even symmetry, x(t)=-x(-t) means it has odd symmetry.
 
richyw said:

Homework Statement



I am going over a practice exam, and I need to find the FSS of f(x)=x(\pi^2-x^2)

Homework Equations


f(x) \sim \sum^\infty_{n=1}a_n sin\left(\frac{n \pi x}{L}\right)
a_n=\frac{2}{L}\int^L_0 f(x)sin\left(\frac{n\pi x}{L}\right)dx

The Attempt at a Solution


I think I need to integrate\frac{2}{\pi}\int^\pi_0 x(\pi^2-x^2)sin(n\pi)dxwhich is two integrals, the first one would need me to use IBP once, and the second one would need me to use IBP three times. This is on a practice exam (and my exam is in an hour), so I am guessing that this integral is easier if I can find some symmetry in it. Is this true?

The fact that the function is odd is the reason you can use the half range sine expansion in the first place. That is why there are no cosine terms. You just need to bite the bullet and do the integration by parts. Don't do two separate integrals though. Write your integrand as$$
(\pi^2x-x^3)sin(n\color{red}x)$$and do it all at once. Note your typo correction.
 
Question: A clock's minute hand has length 4 and its hour hand has length 3. What is the distance between the tips at the moment when it is increasing most rapidly?(Putnam Exam Question) Answer: Making assumption that both the hands moves at constant angular velocities, the answer is ## \sqrt{7} .## But don't you think this assumption is somewhat doubtful and wrong?

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