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Homework Statement
Identify the following differential equation as linear, separable, exact, or a combination of the three.
$$1 + \frac{1+x}{y}\frac{dy}{dx} = 0$$
Homework Equations
Start with ##F(x,y)=C##
##\displaystyle \frac{d}{dx}(F(x,y)) = \frac{d}{dx} (C)##
##\displaystyle \frac{\partial F}{\partial x} + \frac{\partial F}{\partial y}\frac{dy}{dx}= 0##
##\displaystyle M(x,y) = \frac{\partial F}{\partial x} ##
##\displaystyle N(x,y) = \frac{\partial F}{\partial y} ##
##\displaystyle M(x,y)dx + N(x,y)dy = 0##
The Attempt at a Solution
It is easy to show that the differential equation is both separable and linear by simply rearranging the equation:
[tex]
\implies (1+x)\frac{dy}{dx} + y = 0
\\
\implies \frac{1}{y}dy = \frac{-1}{1+x}dx
[/tex]
The problem arises when checking whether or not the DE is exact. My prof and my lab instructor both gave conflicting answers.
One on hand, if you take the differential equation in its original form, ##\displaystyle M(x,y) = 1## and ##\displaystyle N(x,y) = \frac{1+x}{y}##. Then it is obvious from testing the compatibility condition (i.e. ##\displaystyle \frac{\partial M}{dy}(x,y) = \frac{\partial N}{dx}(x,y)##) that the given DE is not exact.
On the other hand, you can rearrange the DE to get ##\displaystyle \frac{1}{1+x}dx+\frac{1}{y}dy = 0##. Then, if you let ##\displaystyle M(x,y)=\frac{1}{1+x}## and ##\displaystyle N(x,y)=\frac{1}{y}##, it is clear that ##\displaystyle \frac{\partial M}{dy} = \frac{\partial N}{dx} = 0##. Now the compatibility condition is met which implies the DE is exact (a result of the statement that a separable DE is always exact).
So which of these approaches are correct? A given DE is exact If and only if the compatibility condition holds.
A more general question of my problem would be: If you're given an equation ##\displaystyle M(x,y)dx + N(x,y)dy = 0## where the compatibility condition fails but its separable so ##\displaystyle \frac{dy}{dx} = A(x)B(y) \implies A(x)dx - \frac{dy}{B(x)} = 0## which is exact we would say that ##\displaystyle A(x)dx - \frac{dy}{B(x)} = 0## is exact. Do we also say that ##\displaystyle M(x,y)dx + N(x,y)dy = 0## is exact (even though initially, the compatibility condition did not hold at first)?