- #1
danai_pa
- 29
- 0
Consider the wavefunction
psi = Ae^i(kx+wt) ;w = omega
where k is real and w(omega) > 0 and is real. Is this wavefunction an admissible quantum state for a free particle?. Justify your answer is no, in what manner would you change the given function to describe a free particle moving in the -x direction?.
psi = Ae^i(kx+wt) ;w = omega
where k is real and w(omega) > 0 and is real. Is this wavefunction an admissible quantum state for a free particle?. Justify your answer is no, in what manner would you change the given function to describe a free particle moving in the -x direction?.