- #1
Trying2Learn
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- TL;DR Summary
- justify a modal analysis
Hello
I have tried asking this different ways, here. I do not know exactly what I am asking. So I am hoping to try again.
Say we have a differential equation for a multi-body system.
We cannot solve it because of the coupling (too difficult). So, we turn to a modal analysis (eigen value problems).
I am fine with how to conduct one, and I am fine with what the modes mean. However, I remain unsatisifed as to a justification for such an approach.
Why do we do a modal analysis? Who FIRST thought this up? What justified them to even consider this? The whole idea of searching for a solution such that the matrix describing the differential equatoin must be singular to ensure that there exist non-null solutions -- who justified this?
At the END of a modal analysis, with no damping (I wish to focus only on this), we have a solution that converts KE to PE and back. What is it, about that statement that motivates a modal analysis (or is it the other way: does a modal analysis show us the KE and PE switch back and forth?)
I get that say, in a 2-mass system connected by springs, that there are natural shapes and natural frequencies. But why? What is it about a particular physical problem that even makes us assume there is such a thing as a natural frequency?
I get the physical intution, say of a swing in a park (for one body), but what is it about the physical world that justifies the possibility of a solution based on natural frequencies?
I do not really know what I am asking, but I am unhappy with existing explanations on how we can justify a modal analysis.
Anyone?
(Something else that irritates me. In a differential equation (for, say a harmonic oscillator), if the forcing functoin matches the natural frequency, resonance occurs. How is THAT resonance related to the resonance that occurs when you take two mass and put them in one of the natural modes and relase them. Is there a common denominator here?)
I have tried asking this different ways, here. I do not know exactly what I am asking. So I am hoping to try again.
Say we have a differential equation for a multi-body system.
We cannot solve it because of the coupling (too difficult). So, we turn to a modal analysis (eigen value problems).
I am fine with how to conduct one, and I am fine with what the modes mean. However, I remain unsatisifed as to a justification for such an approach.
Why do we do a modal analysis? Who FIRST thought this up? What justified them to even consider this? The whole idea of searching for a solution such that the matrix describing the differential equatoin must be singular to ensure that there exist non-null solutions -- who justified this?
At the END of a modal analysis, with no damping (I wish to focus only on this), we have a solution that converts KE to PE and back. What is it, about that statement that motivates a modal analysis (or is it the other way: does a modal analysis show us the KE and PE switch back and forth?)
I get that say, in a 2-mass system connected by springs, that there are natural shapes and natural frequencies. But why? What is it about a particular physical problem that even makes us assume there is such a thing as a natural frequency?
I get the physical intution, say of a swing in a park (for one body), but what is it about the physical world that justifies the possibility of a solution based on natural frequencies?
I do not really know what I am asking, but I am unhappy with existing explanations on how we can justify a modal analysis.
Anyone?
(Something else that irritates me. In a differential equation (for, say a harmonic oscillator), if the forcing functoin matches the natural frequency, resonance occurs. How is THAT resonance related to the resonance that occurs when you take two mass and put them in one of the natural modes and relase them. Is there a common denominator here?)