Kepler´s 2nd law -- Do any two planets sweep out equal area in equal time?

  • #1
LuisBabboni
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TL;DR Summary
Any planet sweeps equal area in equal time?
I mean. For example, Earth in one month sweep the same area* than Jupiter in one month?

*The line joining the Earth with the Sun than the line joining Jupiter with the Sun.

I think yes, but is not what 2nd law says. I think in the fact that the aceleration just depends on the distance to the Sun.

Thanks!
 
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  • #2
LuisBabboni said:
TL;DR Summary: Any planet sweeps equal area in equal time?

I mean. For example, Earth in one month seep the same area* than Jupiter in one month?

*The line joining the Earth with the Sun than the line joining Jupiter with the Sun.

I think yes, but is not what 2nd law says. I think in the fact that the aceleration just depends on the distance to the Sun.

Thanks!
Each planet sweeps out the same area every month. But not the same as every other planet!
 
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  • #3
OK. I understand now why.
At the same distance, the aceleration is the same, but not necesary the velocity, so the orbits are not the same. And being different the velocities, the sweeped areas are not the same!

Thanks!
 
  • #4
LuisBabboni said:
OK. I understand now why.
At the same distance, the aceleration is the same, but not necesary the velocity, so the orbits are not the same. And being different the velocities, the sweeped areas are not the same!

Thanks!
Kepler's second law is really conservation of angular momentum. The angular momentum of each planet is conserved (which means it is constant over time). But, each planet has a different angular momentum. And, geometrically, angular momentum is proportional to the rate at which the planet sweeps out the area of its circular or elliptical orbit. See, for example:

http://burro.case.edu/Academics/Astr221/Gravity/kep2rev.htm
 
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  • #5
PeroK said:
But, each planet has a different angular momentum. And, geometrically, angular momentum is proportional to the rate at which the planet sweeps out the area of its circular or elliptical orbit.
It is worth it to point out that you could have different angular momentum and still sweep different areas per time - if the masses are different - so the important thing is not that the angular momentum differs. The important thing is that the angular momentum per mass differs.
 
  • #6
I do not understand why the mass is important.
I think that if any planet, no matter its mass, is at any point at any velocity, the orbit is just defined. I´m wrong?
 
  • #7
In what you linked, the result have L/m; L/m made m disapear. Im right?
 
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  • #8
LuisBabboni said:
In what you linked, the result have L/m; L/m made m disapear. Im right?
Yes. The orbit and area are independent of the mass of the planet. So, angular momentum per unit mass (##L/m##) is the important quantity.
 
  • #9
LuisBabboni said:
I do not understand why the mass is important.
I think that if any planet, no matter its mass, is at any point at any velocity, the orbit is just defined. I´m wrong?
It is not, that was my point. (As long as the primary has significantly larger mass)
 
  • #10
PeroK said:
Kepler's second law is really conservation of angular momentum. The angular momentum of each planet is conserved (which means it is constant over time). But, each planet has a different angular momentum. And, geometrically, angular momentum is proportional to the rate at which the planet sweeps out the area of its circular or elliptical orbit. See, for example:

http://burro.case.edu/Academics/Astr221/Gravity/kep2rev.htm
Mathematically speaking, each orbit can be modelled in polar coordinates with sun in the center. So r, distance from the Sun is ##f(\theta)##. So
$$\frac{da}{dt}=k$$
$$\frac{da}{dt}=\int^{\theta+\frac{d\theta}{dt}}_{\theta}\int^{r=f(\theta)}_{0} r dr d\theta =k$$
 
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  • #11
Trollfaz said:
$$\frac{da}{dt}=\int^{\theta+\frac{d\theta}{dt}}_{\theta}\int^{r=f(\theta)}_{0} r dr d\theta =k$$
There is (at least) one dimensional inconsistency in this expression.
 
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  • #12
Trollfaz said:
Mathematically speaking, each orbit can be modelled in polar coordinates with sun in the center. So r, distance from the Sun is ##f(\theta)##. So
$$\frac{da}{dt}=k$$
$$\frac{da}{dt}=\int^{\theta+\frac{d\theta}{dt}}_{\theta}\int^{r=f(\theta)}_{0} r dr d\theta =k$$
The area swept out by a line of length ##r## moving through a small angle ##d\theta## is ##da=\frac 12 r^2d\theta##. Using the chain rule to write ##d\theta=\frac{d\theta}{dt}dt## we can write ##da=\frac 12 r^2\frac{d\theta}{dt}dt##, and obviously the angle swept out in a finite time is the integral of that quantity with appropriate limits. If the area swept out is to be a constant but ##r## may vary as a function of time then we must require that ##r^2\frac{d\theta}{dt}=\mathrm{const}##, which is just the law of conservation of angular momentum if the constant is ##L/m##.
 
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Related to Kepler´s 2nd law -- Do any two planets sweep out equal area in equal time?

What is Kepler's 2nd Law?

Kepler's 2nd Law, also known as the Law of Equal Areas, states that a line segment joining a planet and the Sun sweeps out equal areas during equal intervals of time. This means that a planet moves faster when it is closer to the Sun and slower when it is farther from the Sun.

Does Kepler's 2nd Law apply to all planets in the solar system?

Yes, Kepler's 2nd Law applies to all planets in the solar system. It is a universal principle that governs the motion of all celestial bodies orbiting the Sun, including planets, asteroids, and comets.

Do any two planets sweep out equal areas in equal time?

No, Kepler's 2nd Law applies to each individual planet's orbit around the Sun. Each planet sweeps out equal areas in equal times along its own elliptical orbit, but the areas swept out by different planets in the same amount of time are not necessarily equal to each other.

How does Kepler's 2nd Law affect the speed of a planet in its orbit?

Kepler's 2nd Law implies that a planet's orbital speed varies depending on its distance from the Sun. When a planet is closer to the Sun (at perihelion), it moves faster, and when it is farther from the Sun (at aphelion), it moves slower. This variation in speed ensures that the area swept out by the line segment joining the planet and the Sun remains constant over equal time intervals.

Can Kepler's 2nd Law be used to determine the orbital period of a planet?

Kepler's 2nd Law itself does not directly determine the orbital period of a planet. However, it is related to Kepler's 3rd Law, which states that the square of the orbital period of a planet is proportional to the cube of the semi-major axis of its orbit. By using Kepler's 3rd Law, one can calculate the orbital period of a planet based on the size of its orbit.

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