Kinetic Energy being larger than Mechanical Energy in a Hotwheels Lab

In summary, the experiment in the Hotwheels Lab demonstrated that kinetic energy can exceed mechanical energy due to factors such as friction and energy loss during motion. The findings highlight the importance of understanding energy transformations and the limitations of mechanical energy in practical applications.
  • #1
MrSand
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Homework Statement
The lab setup is rather simple we have a vertical ramp which has a height of .33m, and our total distance is 1.33m. A meter for the ramp and a foot for the rest of the track below. We let the Hotwheels car go one round and recorded the time using a slow-mo video and a stopwatch. We have a time of .85s. A mass of .02575 kg converted from 25.75 grams and a velocity initial of 0. Whilst there is friction and air resistance we don't need to account for it. The angle of the ramp is 18 degrees. The main issue is that when I input my solved kinematic equations I keep getting a KE greater than our initial PE. This is very conflicting as we can't gain more than the allotted PE, there shouldn't be any extra energy but there is for some reason and I can't see it.
Relevant Equations
GPE: m x g x h KE: 1/2(m)*(v^2) Kinematic equations: Vf^2= Vo^2 + 2ax, Vf = Vi + at, x = Vi*t + 1/2a*t^2
- work
 
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  • #2
You cannot use ##s = at^2/2## as acceleration is not constant (acceleration is zero during the horizontal portion and you seem to use the time for ramp+horizontal).

A more direct approach to find the final v would be to measure the time taken for the horizontal piece of the track.
 
  • #3
h=0.33m? How did you compute that?
It is not clear to me what period the 0.85s represents.
From your use of it to calculate an acceleration, it seems to be the time to descend the ramp. Is that correct? Then you use that to find the velocity at the bottom of the ramp.
It would be a lot simpler to recognise that, with no losses, the velocity would be the same as if it fell straight down, ##v^2=2as=2gh##.
 
  • #4
haruspex said:
From your use of it to calculate an acceleration, it seems to be the time to descend the ramp. Is that correct?
No. If you check the numbes used, they are using 1.33 m for the distance travelled. Based on the drawing of the track, this would seem to imply they have assumed acceleration constant for the entire ramp and horizontal part when computing the final v.
 
  • #5
haruspex said:
It would be a lot simpler to recognise that, with no losses, the velocity would be the same as if it fell straight down, v2=2as=2gh.
But this assumes conservation of mechanical energy, which is what they are trying to verify experimentally.
 
  • #6
As to the angle, an angle of 18 degrees for a 1 m ramp gives a height of ca 31 cm. A 33 cm height for a 1 m ramp gives 19 degrees so it depends on which was actually measured in the experiment - height or angle. Although the difference is likely within the experimental error bars.
 
  • #7
Orodruin said:
But this assumes conservation of mechanical energy,
Not really. It is a matter of kinematics that for constant acceleration ##v^2-u^2=2as##. Considering it only as downslope motion, it is just geometry that ##h=s\sin(\theta)## and ##a=g\sin(\theta)##, whence ##v_f^2=2gh##.
 
  • #8
haruspex said:
Not really. It is a matter of kinematics that for constant acceleration ##v^2-u^2=2as##. Considering it only as downslope motion, it is just geometry that ##h=s\sin(\theta)## and ##a=g\sin(\theta)##, whence ##v_f^2=2gh##.
I mean, regardless of how you want to see it, the experiment is to verify that ##v^2 = 2gh##. You cannot then just make the assumption that ##v^2 = 2gh##.
 
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  • #9
haruspex said:
##a=g\sin(\theta)##
which, by the way, also becomes equivalent to the conservation of mechanical energy in this situation. It is ultimately a statement of forces, but equates to conservation of energy through the work-energy theorem.
 
  • #10
Orodruin said:
the experiment is to verify that ##v^2 = 2gh##.
I see nothing in post #1 or title that says this is an experiment to verify conservation of ME. I presume you base this on experience of such courses.
But what does it really mean? If you assume g is constant and that the velocity is constant on the flat then it can all be deduced from first principles. If you cannot use the constant acceleration kinematic equations then I see no way to analyse the data.

Seems to me it is an experiment to determine whether the student can conduct experiments and analyse the result. Which is fair enough.
 
  • #11
haruspex said:
I see nothing in post #1 or title that says this is an experiment to verify conservation of ME. I presume you base this on experience of such courses.
But what does it really mean? If you assume g is constant and that the velocity is constant on the flat then it can all be deduced from first principles. If you cannot use the constant acceleration kinematic equations then I see no way to analyse the data.

Seems to me it is an experiment to determine whether the student can conduct experiments and analyse the result. Which is fair enough.
So let me ask what you think is the point of the experiment. Computing mgh twice and concluding that you got the same result?
 
  • #12
Orodruin said:
So let me ask what you think is the point of the experiment. Computing mgh twice and concluding that you got the same result?
Maybe it verifies that speed is constant in the absence of a force in the direction of the velocity? Other than that, what I wrote in post #10.
As regards teaching physics, it would be more appropriate to ask what you would have to assume to deduce from kinematics that the lost GPE would equal the gained KE. E.g., g is constant, m is constant, and what I wrote just above about speed.
 
  • #13
haruspex said:
Maybe it verifies that speed is constant in the absence of a force in the direction of the velocity?
A more direct test of that would measure the velocity for different sections of the flat part. You don’t even need a ramp, you can give the car a velocity by hand.

haruspex said:
If you cannot use the constant acceleration
That acceleration is constant does not mean it is equal to ##g\sin\theta##.

It appears to me that what the OP is attempting is to compare kinetic energy to lost potential energy. This is precisely the work-energy theorem and if you use mgh to compute kinetic energy, well, then you have assumed that it holds.

OP should chime in and clarify what the actual experimental task is as described by the teacher. @MrSand

Edit: And regardless what the answer is, the basic mistake of the OP is assuming acceleration to be constant over the full 1.33 m track.
 
  • #14
Orodruin said:
A more direct test of that would measure the velocity for different sections of the flat part. You don’t even need a ramp, you can give the car a velocity by hand.


That acceleration is constant does not mean it is equal to ##g\sin\theta##.

It appears to me that what the OP is attempting is to compare kinetic energy to lost potential energy. This is precisely the work-energy theorem and if you use mgh to compute kinetic energy, well, then you have assumed that it holds.

OP should chime in and clarify what the actual experimental task is as described by the teacher. @MrSand

Edit: And regardless what the answer is, the basic mistake of the OP is assuming acceleration to be constant over the full 1.33 m track.
We are supposed to account for energy loss and the lab is asking us to announce the factors that may have led to it. I spoke to my teacher and he kept it vague so I'm going with the assumption that we do need to account for friction
 
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  • #15
this is the track
 
  • #16
MrSand said:
We are supposed to account for energy loss and the lab is asking us to announce the factors that may have led to it. I spoke to my teacher and he kept vague so I'm going with the assumption that we do need to account for friction
Just to be clear: So the task is to compare the loss in potential energy to the final kinetic energy?

You are “supposed” to find the kinetic energy to be lower and argue where energy may have gone?

Regardless, did you understand the points above regarding the errors in your approach?
 
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  • #17
I'd say so.
 

FAQ: Kinetic Energy being larger than Mechanical Energy in a Hotwheels Lab

Why might kinetic energy appear larger than mechanical energy in a Hotwheels lab experiment?

This could be due to measurement errors or miscalculations. Kinetic energy is a component of mechanical energy, which also includes potential energy. If potential energy is not accurately accounted for, it may seem like kinetic energy is larger.

How can friction and air resistance affect the energy calculations in a Hotwheels lab?

Friction and air resistance convert some of the mechanical energy into thermal energy, which is not usually accounted for in simple kinetic and potential energy calculations. This can lead to discrepancies where the measured kinetic energy seems larger than the calculated mechanical energy.

What role does the accuracy of measuring instruments play in the observed energy values?

Inaccurate or imprecise measuring instruments can lead to errors in calculating kinetic and mechanical energy. For example, errors in measuring the velocity of the Hotwheels car can significantly affect the kinetic energy calculation, leading to apparent inconsistencies.

Can energy be created or destroyed in a Hotwheels experiment, leading to larger kinetic energy values?

No, according to the law of conservation of energy, energy cannot be created or destroyed. If kinetic energy appears larger than mechanical energy, it is likely due to errors in measurement or calculations rather than a violation of this fundamental principle.

How can we improve the accuracy of energy measurements in a Hotwheels lab?

To improve accuracy, ensure that all forms of energy, including potential energy and energy losses due to friction and air resistance, are accounted for. Use precise measuring instruments and repeat experiments multiple times to average out any anomalies or errors.

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