- #1
applestrudle
- 64
- 0
... why are there more nodes/zeros?
If l = 0 then the angular momentum contribution to the effective potential is zero, and there is the coublomb potential only. So shouldn't it always go as ~ -k/r^2 (k = constant) like the n=1 s orbital?
Why is it that for n = 2 is there 1 zero, n= 3 there is 2 zeros, etc?
Thanks
If l = 0 then the angular momentum contribution to the effective potential is zero, and there is the coublomb potential only. So shouldn't it always go as ~ -k/r^2 (k = constant) like the n=1 s orbital?
Why is it that for n = 2 is there 1 zero, n= 3 there is 2 zeros, etc?
Thanks