- #1
muzialis
- 166
- 1
Hi there,
I am reading about Lagrangian mechanics.
At some point the difference between the temporal derivative of a variation and variation of the temporal derivative is discussed.
The fact that the two are the same is presented in the book I am reading as a rule, commutativity, and possible non-commutative rule.
I do not get it: given a path q(t) and its variation $$\deltaq(t)$$, the equivalence between the variation of a derivative and the derivative of a variation seems to me a fact, not an arbitrary choice.
Could maybe anyone shed some light?
Thanks a lot
I am reading about Lagrangian mechanics.
At some point the difference between the temporal derivative of a variation and variation of the temporal derivative is discussed.
The fact that the two are the same is presented in the book I am reading as a rule, commutativity, and possible non-commutative rule.
I do not get it: given a path q(t) and its variation $$\deltaq(t)$$, the equivalence between the variation of a derivative and the derivative of a variation seems to me a fact, not an arbitrary choice.
Could maybe anyone shed some light?
Thanks a lot