Laminar flow in a pipe (Poiseuille flow)

In summary: Poiseuille's equation using an infinitesimal volume element of the pipe in cylindrical coordinates. You are using x for the flow direction, u for the velocity in the flow direction, and μ for the viscosity constant. You are trying to get the net viscous force on the infinitesimal element using two methods. Method 1 is equal to μ(du/dr)r+δr (r+δr) δϕ δx-μ(du/dr)r r δϕ δx=μ[(r+δr)(\frac{du}{dr})_{r+δr}
  • #1
rmc240
4
0

Homework Statement



I am trying to derive Poiseuille's equation using an infinitesimal volume element of the pipe in cylindrical coordinates as seen below. I am using x for the flow direction, u for the velocity in the flow direction, and μ for the viscosity constant.

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Homework Equations



I know the viscous stress varies radially by τ = μ(du/dr)

This means that the viscous force on one face of my infinitesimal volume element is μ(du/dr)r r δ[itex]\phi[/itex] δx

And I think the viscous force on the opposite face is μ(du/dr)r+δr (r+δr) δ[itex]\phi[/itex] δx

Now I want to subtract one of these forces from the other to get the net viscous force on the infinitesimal element.

The Attempt at a Solution



When I attempt to do this, I am left with two radial derivatives evaluated at different points. I get:

μ ( (du/dr)r+δr r δ[itex]\phi[/itex] δx + (du/dr)r+δr δr δ[itex]\phi[/itex] δx - (du/dr)r r δ[itex]\phi[/itex] δx)

Now I'm not exactly sure how to use Taylor's Theorem to get all of the derivatives evaluated at the same point and combine terms. Thanks.
 
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  • #2
You're very close to having the right answer. There are two methods you can use.

Method 1:
μ(du/dr)r+δr (r+δr) δϕ δx-μ(du/dr)r r δϕ δx=[itex]μ[(r+δr)(\frac{du}{dr})_{r+δr}-r(\frac{du}{dr})_{r}]δϕ δx=μ\frac{[(r+δr)(\frac{du}{dr})_{r+δr}-r(\frac{du}{dr})_{r}]}{δr}δrδϕ δx[/itex]

This is equal to
[tex]μ\frac{d}{dr}\left(r\frac{du}{dr}\right)δrδϕ δx[/tex]

Method 2:

μ ( (du/dr)r+δr r δϕ δx + (du/dr)r+δr δr δϕ δx - (du/dr)r r δϕ δx)=[itex]μ(r(\frac{du}{dr})_{r+δr}-r(\frac{du}{dr})_{r}+(\frac{du}{dr})_{r+δr})δr δϕ δx[/itex]
This is equal to:[tex]μ(r\frac{(\frac{du}{dr})_{r+δr}-(\frac{du}{dr})_{r}}{δr})δr δϕ δx+μ((\frac{du}{dr})_{r}+\frac{d^2u}{dr^2}δr)δr δϕ δx=μ(r\frac{d^2u}{dr^2})δr δϕ δx+μ(\frac{du}{dr})δr δϕ δx+μ\frac{d^2u}{dr^2}(δr)^2 δϕ δx[/tex]
This is equal to:
[tex]μ(r\frac{d^2u}{dr^2}+\frac{du}{dr})δr δϕ δx+μ\frac{d^2u}{dr^2}(δr)^2 δϕ δx[/tex]
The last term has 4 differentials in it compared to only 3 from the previous term, so it can be neglected. We are left with:

[tex]μ(r\frac{d^2u}{dr^2}+\frac{du}{dr})δr δϕ δx[/tex]

Chet
 
  • #3
Ah, I see thank you. I should have recognized the definition of a derivative.

My only question is that in method 1 it doesn't look like you are making any approximations because you're just applying the definition of a derivative, while in method 2 it looks like you use an approximation because you neglect the term with 4 differentials. But you end up with the same result both times. Why is this the case?
 
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  • #4
rmc240 said:
Ah, I see thank you. I should have recognized the definition of a derivative.

My only question is that in method 1 it doesn't look like you are making any approximations because you're just applying the definition of a derivative, while in method 2 it looks like you use an approximation because you neglect the term with 4 differentials. But you end up with the same result both times. Why is this the case?

They're just different ways of doing the approximation, but the final result has to come out the same either way.
Chet
 
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  • #5




Hello, it seems like you are on the right track with your derivation. In order to use Taylor's Theorem to evaluate the derivatives at the same point, you can expand the terms in your equation to include higher order terms. This will allow you to use Taylor's Theorem to approximate the derivatives at the same point. Additionally, you may need to use the chain rule to evaluate the derivatives in terms of the velocity and position variables. Keep in mind that the net viscous force on the infinitesimal element should be equal to the change in momentum over time, which can be represented by the Navier-Stokes equation. I hope this helps. Good luck with your derivation!
 

Related to Laminar flow in a pipe (Poiseuille flow)

1. What is laminar flow in a pipe?

Laminar flow in a pipe, also known as Poiseuille flow, is a type of fluid flow that occurs when a fluid moves through a pipe in smooth, parallel layers. This means that the fluid particles move in a straight line and do not mix with each other.

2. How is laminar flow different from turbulent flow?

Laminar flow is characterized by smooth, orderly movement of fluid particles, while turbulent flow is characterized by chaotic, irregular movement. In laminar flow, the layers of fluid do not mix, while in turbulent flow, there is mixing between the layers.

3. What factors affect laminar flow in a pipe?

The factors that affect laminar flow in a pipe include the viscosity of the fluid, the diameter of the pipe, and the flow rate. Higher viscosity, smaller pipe diameter, and lower flow rate all promote laminar flow.

4. How is laminar flow measured in a pipe?

Laminar flow in a pipe is typically measured using the Reynolds number, which is a dimensionless quantity that compares the inertial forces of the fluid to the viscous forces. A Reynolds number below 2300 indicates laminar flow.

5. What are the applications of laminar flow in a pipe?

Laminar flow in a pipe has many practical applications, such as in the transportation of liquids in pipelines, in the design of medical devices such as catheters, and in the manufacturing of microfluidic devices. It is also important in understanding the flow of blood and other fluids in the human body.

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