- #1
vvl92
- 13
- 0
I have a question asking for the inverse laplace transform of (e^(-s))/(s^2+pi^2).
I split it up to (e^(-s))/s x s/(s^2+pi^2) and got u(t-1)cos(pi(t-1)),but the correct answer is (sin(pi(t-1)/pi)u(t-1). So here it was split up to (e^(-s))/pi x pi/(s^2+pi^2) and I don't understand where the step function came from. It is the same in all of the questions and on things I have seen online, even though the transform of U(t-a) is (e^(-as))/s.
I split it up to (e^(-s))/s x s/(s^2+pi^2) and got u(t-1)cos(pi(t-1)),but the correct answer is (sin(pi(t-1)/pi)u(t-1). So here it was split up to (e^(-s))/pi x pi/(s^2+pi^2) and I don't understand where the step function came from. It is the same in all of the questions and on things I have seen online, even though the transform of U(t-a) is (e^(-as))/s.