- #1
Icetray
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- 0
Homework Statement
The Attempt at a Solution
I know that u(t) is a unit step function and holds a value of either 0 or 1. In laplace transform, when we integrate f(t) from 0 to infinity, we take u(t) to be 1.
In this case, since u(t) is u(-t), does this mean it holds a value of 0? Does not make sense to me that both answers are 0.
Thanks in advance for the help. :) Any links to notes on similar laplace transforms would be very much appreciated as well! :)