- #1
paul2211
- 36
- 1
So last semester, I had a Circuit Analysis course where I learned about phasors. Basically, when dealing with AC circuits, I should convert everything to the frequency domain where [itex]X = j\omega L[/itex] and [itex]X = \frac{1}{j\omega C}[/itex]. I feel like I understood this part really well.
However, in Circuits II, my prof was used Laplace transforms when dealing with DC circuits (at least I think?) involving capacitors and inductors and derived the same result for their reactance. I'm really confused at how he did this because aren't inductors just treated as short and capacitors as open circuits?
Also, are Laplace transforms and phasors related? They produced the same impedences, but they feel too different to be the same...
I hope I made my questions clear because I am currently very confused, and thanks in advance.
However, in Circuits II, my prof was used Laplace transforms when dealing with DC circuits (at least I think?) involving capacitors and inductors and derived the same result for their reactance. I'm really confused at how he did this because aren't inductors just treated as short and capacitors as open circuits?
Also, are Laplace transforms and phasors related? They produced the same impedences, but they feel too different to be the same...
I hope I made my questions clear because I am currently very confused, and thanks in advance.