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dE_logics
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If force is applied in one direction, then it can't happen that the net force application on the normal reactant (or the stuff on which the force finally falls on) is more than or less than the applied force in the same direction as the applied force.
Is this correct?
What I mean to say here is that suppose a force (x) applies through a mechanism and all the force finally falls on something...or there's just 1 object on which the force falls on (take the magnitude of the force that falls on this object as y)...so can it happen that x != y?