- #1
henry22
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Homework Statement
Show from definition that if f is measurable on [a,b], with m<=f(x)<=M for all x then its lebesgue integral, I, satisfies
m(b-a)<=I<=M(b-a)
Homework Equations
The Attempt at a Solution
I know that the definition is that f:[a,b]->R is measurable if for each t in R the set {x in [a,b] :f(x)>c} is measurable.
But I don't see how this helps?