Legal proof that set of Rational numbers is countable?

In summary, the set of rational numbers (Q) is countable because it is a subset of the countable set of positive integers (Z). This can be shown by listing the rationals with denominator q=1 in the first row of a listing matrix, q=2 in the second row, and so on. It can also be shown using a 1:1 correspondence or bijective function.
  • #1
Liquid7800
76
0
Hello,

Just wondering if this is a correct way to say the set of RATIONAL numbers is countable:

Rationals (Q) is countable , because for every Q = p/q , such that p & q are positive INTS (Z)

and since the set of positive INTs (Z) is countable ( a 1:1 correspondence) Q is countable because it is a SUBSET of a countable set...

it can be listed by listing those Q's with
denominator q = 1 in the first row of a listing matrix
denominator q =2 in the second row and so on...
with p1 = 1 , p2 =2, etc... for each row...

will eventually cover ALL rationalsREMARK:
Ive seen the little N x N matrix and path listing for each rational...but I would like to know...
How would you show this as a mapped 1:1 function?? such that A ---> B showing f(a) = some b??Thanks for any input...
 
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  • #2
Liquid7800 said:
How would you show this as a mapped 1:1 function?? such that A ---> B showing f(a) = some b??
Thanks for any input...

You might be asking for an onto function. 1:1 means if f(a)=f(b), then a = b.
 
  • #3
Thanks for the reply...
However, when I said
How would you show this as a mapped 1:1 function?? such that A ---> B showing f(a) = some b??
I shouldve said:
A 1:1 correspondence function or a bijective function...
 
  • #4
The standard proof (Cantor) is as follows: Let a(i,j)=i/j. Then the order to show countable is a(1,1), a(2,1), a(1,2), a(3,1), [a(2,2)], a(1,3), a(4,1), a(3,2), a(2,3), a(1,4),... skipping terms in [] since these are not in lowest terms.
 
  • #5


Hello,

Thank you for your question. Yes, your explanation is correct. The set of rational numbers, Q, is countable because it can be put into a 1:1 correspondence with the set of positive integers, Z. This can be shown by listing all the rational numbers in a matrix, as you described, or by using the diagonalization method.

To show that Q is countable using a 1:1 function, we can define a function f: Q → Z, where f(p/q) = p + q. This function maps each rational number to a unique positive integer, thus showing that Q is a subset of a countable set (Z) and is therefore countable itself.

I hope this helps clarify your understanding. Let me know if you have any further questions.

Best,

Scientist
 

FAQ: Legal proof that set of Rational numbers is countable?

What does it mean for a set of numbers to be countable?

A set of numbers is countable if there exists a one-to-one correspondence between the elements of the set and the natural numbers (1, 2, 3, ...). This means that every element in the set can be paired with a unique natural number and there are no elements left out.

How do you prove that the set of Rational numbers is countable?

To prove that the set of Rational numbers is countable, we can use the Cantor's diagonal argument. This involves creating a list of all the Rational numbers and showing that every number in the list can be mapped to a unique natural number, thus proving a one-to-one correspondence.

Are all subsets of the set of Rational numbers countable?

No, not all subsets of the set of Rational numbers are countable. For example, the set of Irrational numbers is uncountable, as shown by Cantor's diagonal argument. This means that there is no one-to-one correspondence between the Irrational numbers and the natural numbers.

How does the proof of the countability of Rational numbers relate to the concept of infinity?

The proof of the countability of Rational numbers shows that although there are an infinite number of Rational numbers, they can still be counted and therefore have a cardinality of Aleph-0. This differs from the infinite cardinality of the set of Real numbers, which is uncountable.

Can the proof of the countability of Rational numbers be applied to other sets?

Yes, the proof of the countability of Rational numbers can be applied to other sets as long as they have a one-to-one correspondence with the natural numbers. This includes sets such as integers, even numbers, and prime numbers, among others.

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