Lengths of three segments of a triangle

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In summary, if the lengths of three segments $x,\,y,\,z$ can form a triangle, then the same is true for $\dfrac{1}{x+z},\,\dfrac{1}{y+z},\,\dfrac{1}{x+y}$. This is shown by taking another approach similar to kaliprasad's solution.
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anemone
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If $x,\,y,\,z$ are lengths of three segments which can form a triangle, show that the same is true for $\dfrac{1}{x+z},\,\dfrac{1}{y+z},\,\dfrac{1}{x+y}$.
 
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  • #2
anemone said:
If $x,\,y,\,z$ are lengths of three segments which can form a triangle, show that the same is true for $\dfrac{1}{x+z},\,\dfrac{1}{y+z},\,\dfrac{1}{x+y}$.

we need to show that for arbritary sides of length x,y z
$\dfrac{1}{x+z} + \dfrac{1}{y+z}\gt \dfrac{1}{x+y}$
or $(y+z)(x+y) + (x+z)(x+y) \ge (x+z)(x+z)$
or simlifying
$x^2+y^2 + xy + yz + xz \ge z^2$

now
$x^2+y^2 + xy + yz + xz = z(x+y) + x^2+y^2 + xy$
$ \gt z(x+y) $
$\gt z^2$ as $x+y \gt z$

hence proved
 
  • #3
kaliprasad said:
we need to show that for arbritary sides of length x,y z
$\dfrac{1}{x+z} + \dfrac{1}{y+z}\gt \dfrac{1}{x+y}$
or $(y+z)(x+y) + (x+z)(x+y) \ge (x+z)(x+z)$
or simlifying
$x^2+y^2 + xy + yz + xz \ge z^2$

now
$x^2+y^2 + xy + yz + xz = z(x+y) + x^2+y^2 + xy$
$ \gt z(x+y) $
$\gt z^2$ as $x+y \gt z$

hence proved

Very well done, kaliprasad! :cool: And thanks for participating!
 
  • #4
Here is another solution of other that I want to share with MHB:

WLOG we can assume that $z\ge y \ge x$ so that $\dfrac{1}{x+y}\ge \dfrac{1}{z+x}\ge\dfrac{1}{y+z}$ and now, it remains to prove that $\dfrac{1}{y+z}+\dfrac{1}{z+x}>\dfrac{1}{x+y}$.

We have

$\dfrac{1}{y+z}+\dfrac{1}{z+x}-\dfrac{1}{x+y}=\dfrac{x^2+xy+y^2+z(x+y-z)}{(y+z)(z+x)(x+y)}>0$ since $x+y>z$ and the result follows.
Note that this is an identical approach to kaliprasad's, but written in a slightly different way.
 
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  • #5
anemone said:
Here is another solution of other that I want to share with MHB:

WLOG we can assume that $z\ge y \ge z$ so that $\dfrac{1}{x+y}\ge \dfrac{1}{z+x}\ge\dfrac{1}{y+z}$ and now, it remains to prove that $\dfrac{1}{y+z}+\dfrac{1}{z+x}>\dfrac{1}{x+y}$.

We have

$\dfrac{1}{y+z}+\dfrac{1}{z+x}-\dfrac{1}{x+y}=\dfrac{x^2+xy+y^2+z(x+y-z)}{(y+z)(z+x)(x+y)}>0$ since $x+y>z$ and the result follows.
Note that this is an identical approach to kaliprasad's, but written in a slightly different way.
There is a typo error in WLOG iline,
it should be $z\ge y \ge x $
Secondly we do not need WLOG line as
$x+y-z \gt 0$ for any x,y,z sides of the triangle
 
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FAQ: Lengths of three segments of a triangle

What is the triangle inequality theorem?

The triangle inequality theorem states that the sum of the lengths of any two sides of a triangle must be greater than the length of the third side.

How do you find the longest side of a triangle?

The longest side of a triangle is known as the hypotenuse. To find the hypotenuse, you can use the Pythagorean theorem, which states that the square of the hypotenuse is equal to the sum of the squares of the other two sides.

Can the lengths of three segments of a triangle be any three numbers?

No, the lengths of three segments of a triangle must follow the triangle inequality theorem. This means that the sum of the lengths of any two sides must be greater than the length of the third side.

How many different triangles can be formed with given lengths of three segments?

There can be either one, two, or no triangles formed with given lengths of three segments. One triangle can be formed if the lengths satisfy the triangle inequality theorem. Two triangles can be formed if the lengths satisfy the equality case of the theorem. No triangle can be formed if the lengths do not satisfy the theorem.

Can a triangle have two equal sides and one different side?

Yes, a triangle with two equal sides and one different side is called an isosceles triangle. However, the triangle must still follow the triangle inequality theorem.

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