- #1
twotaileddemon
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Hi... I have a quick question. I'm given V = ([0,1], <f,g> = interval from 0 to 1 of f(x)g(x)dx, S = {1, 2x-1}, W = lin(s), and P exists in W.
I was determining the best approximation (P) to a function (F). F was some polynomial (3x + 5) and when I did the work I got P to be the same polynomial. (I used projections of both parts of S with F and added them)
The distance between them, d(F,P) was obviously 0, but I was wondering why this was true? I mean.. why it HAD to be true even before I computed P.
Is it because W and F were polynomials of the same degree and p exists in W? Thanks for your help.
Any elaboration is great :) I just want to understand why certain functions already have the best approximation to what is given.
I was determining the best approximation (P) to a function (F). F was some polynomial (3x + 5) and when I did the work I got P to be the same polynomial. (I used projections of both parts of S with F and added them)
The distance between them, d(F,P) was obviously 0, but I was wondering why this was true? I mean.. why it HAD to be true even before I computed P.
Is it because W and F were polynomials of the same degree and p exists in W? Thanks for your help.
Any elaboration is great :) I just want to understand why certain functions already have the best approximation to what is given.