- #1
Sudharaka
Gold Member
MHB
- 1,568
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Hi everyone, :)
This is one of those questions I encountered when trying to do a problem. I know that a eigenvector of a linear transformation should be non-zero by definition. So does that mean every linear transformation has eigenvectors? What if there's some linear transformation where no eigenvectors exist. Here's a question which I came across which motivated me to think about this.
So we have to find functions such that,
\[T(f(x))=\lambda\,f(x)\]
\[\Rightarrow \int_{0}^{x}f(t)\,dt=\lambda \,f(x)\]
Now differentiating both sides we get,
\[f(x)=\lambda\,f'(x)\]
Solving for \(f\) we finally obtain,
\[f(x)=Ae^{x/\lambda}\]
where \(A\) is a constant. To find the value of \(A\) we plug this to our original equation. And then something out of the ordinary happens... :p
\[\int_{0}^{x}Ae^{t/\lambda}\,dx=\lambda\,Ae^{x/\lambda}\]
\[\Rightarrow A=0\]
So we get, \(f(x)=0\) which is not a eigenvector. And hence I came to the conclusion that this linear transformation doesn't have any eigenvectors. Am I correct? :)
This is one of those questions I encountered when trying to do a problem. I know that a eigenvector of a linear transformation should be non-zero by definition. So does that mean every linear transformation has eigenvectors? What if there's some linear transformation where no eigenvectors exist. Here's a question which I came across which motivated me to think about this.
Find eigenvectors and eigenvalues of the following linear transformation.
\[T:\,f(x)\rightarrow\int_{0}^{x}f(t)\,dt\] in the linear span over \(\Re\).
So we have to find functions such that,
\[T(f(x))=\lambda\,f(x)\]
\[\Rightarrow \int_{0}^{x}f(t)\,dt=\lambda \,f(x)\]
Now differentiating both sides we get,
\[f(x)=\lambda\,f'(x)\]
Solving for \(f\) we finally obtain,
\[f(x)=Ae^{x/\lambda}\]
where \(A\) is a constant. To find the value of \(A\) we plug this to our original equation. And then something out of the ordinary happens... :p
\[\int_{0}^{x}Ae^{t/\lambda}\,dx=\lambda\,Ae^{x/\lambda}\]
\[\Rightarrow A=0\]
So we get, \(f(x)=0\) which is not a eigenvector. And hence I came to the conclusion that this linear transformation doesn't have any eigenvectors. Am I correct? :)