- #1
relinquished™
- 79
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Hello,
I just have one question that's been bothering me. When I reduce a higher ODE to a First ODE, and if I prove that First ODE satisfies the Lipschitz condition, does that mean that the higher ODE has a unique solution (thanks to some other theorem)?
All clarifications are appreciated,
Reli~
I just have one question that's been bothering me. When I reduce a higher ODE to a First ODE, and if I prove that First ODE satisfies the Lipschitz condition, does that mean that the higher ODE has a unique solution (thanks to some other theorem)?
All clarifications are appreciated,
Reli~