- #1
Noesis
- 101
- 0
Now I preface this by saying that I am still very far from having any true appreciable amount of knowledge on the subject of electromagnetism, only about 2 semesters worth. I have been trying to actively learn a lot on my lonesome and this is something I felt worth asking.
I did not want to post this question elsewhere since it has nothing to do with school, just a personal muse.
Analyzing both Coloumb's Law and the Biot-Savart Law for electric and magnetic fields, I notice that the constants involved both contain 4pi and are inversely related to the distance squared.
Putting this factor together, 4pi*r^2, would be the surface of a sphere centered at the point we are measuring from.
Since 4pi*r^2 is in the denominator, this means either the electric field or magnetic field at a point is inversely proportional to it.
Now do these factors truly stem from inverse proportionality to the surface of a sphere centered about the point of interest, or do they come from other sources?
If so, would it be feasible to have a gravitational analog in the Law of Gravitation since it is also inversely related to distance squared? Perhaps we could simply factor out a G from 4pi. I know the last bit on gravitation is a stretch, but it seems like a cool idea.
Someone shed some light on this darkness!
I did not want to post this question elsewhere since it has nothing to do with school, just a personal muse.
Analyzing both Coloumb's Law and the Biot-Savart Law for electric and magnetic fields, I notice that the constants involved both contain 4pi and are inversely related to the distance squared.
Putting this factor together, 4pi*r^2, would be the surface of a sphere centered at the point we are measuring from.
Since 4pi*r^2 is in the denominator, this means either the electric field or magnetic field at a point is inversely proportional to it.
Now do these factors truly stem from inverse proportionality to the surface of a sphere centered about the point of interest, or do they come from other sources?
If so, would it be feasible to have a gravitational analog in the Law of Gravitation since it is also inversely related to distance squared? Perhaps we could simply factor out a G from 4pi. I know the last bit on gravitation is a stretch, but it seems like a cool idea.
Someone shed some light on this darkness!