- #1
Longines
- 10
- 0
Hello once again!
I've been doing this question and I was wondering if my workings are correct, if they are not correct, can you please correct them?
The question is as follows:
View attachment 3243
My workings are:
$\binom{y}{x} \frac{e^{-1}}{2^y y!}$We can rewrite this:
$\frac{y!}{x!(y-x)!} \times \frac{e^{-1}}{2^y y!}$$\frac{1}{x!(y-x)!} \times \frac{e^{-1}}{2^y}$
So we have:
$f_{x, y}(x,y) = \frac{1}{x!(y-x)!} \times \frac{e^{-1}}{2^y}$
Now using the formula:
$f_{x} (x,y) = \sum_{y}^{\infty} P_{x,y}(x,y)$
and subbing in $P_{x,y}(x,y)$:$\frac{e^{-1}}{x!} \sum_{y}^{\infty} \frac{1}{(y-x)!}$
= $\frac{e^{-1}}{x!}$
And in a same fashion, for y we get:
$f_{y}(x,y) = \frac{e^{-1}}{y!}$
I've been doing this question and I was wondering if my workings are correct, if they are not correct, can you please correct them?
The question is as follows:
View attachment 3243
My workings are:
$\binom{y}{x} \frac{e^{-1}}{2^y y!}$We can rewrite this:
$\frac{y!}{x!(y-x)!} \times \frac{e^{-1}}{2^y y!}$$\frac{1}{x!(y-x)!} \times \frac{e^{-1}}{2^y}$
So we have:
$f_{x, y}(x,y) = \frac{1}{x!(y-x)!} \times \frac{e^{-1}}{2^y}$
Now using the formula:
$f_{x} (x,y) = \sum_{y}^{\infty} P_{x,y}(x,y)$
and subbing in $P_{x,y}(x,y)$:$\frac{e^{-1}}{x!} \sum_{y}^{\infty} \frac{1}{(y-x)!}$
= $\frac{e^{-1}}{x!}$
And in a same fashion, for y we get:
$f_{y}(x,y) = \frac{e^{-1}}{y!}$