In summary, @BvU asks you to calculate the potential energy of a sphere with a uniformly positive charge distribution. You can do this by using the relation U=k(3/5)((Q^2)/R). This will give you a mass equivalent.
  • #36
BvU said:
You did not. But it's not your exercise !

Well no, but I thought you had endorsed the statement "Can the mass difference between protons and neutrons be due to the electrical potential energy of the protons?" as being plausible by consideration of . I had pointed out in #16 that there was no need to perform the calculation, since we already know the electric potential energy would increase, rather than decrease, the mass! :smile:
 
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  • #37
You and I already knew. OP was supposed to discover 1.3 MeV/c2 mass difference can not be explained with a 1 MeV/c2 from electrostatic energy
 
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  • #38
Whoops... now I realized you had said "can you answer... affirmatively", instead of saying 'affirmative' to the quote. Please forgive my naivety, I'm not good at interpreting subtext :wink:
 
  • #39
I came back.:smile: I still have a knot in understanding this exercise. :frown:
Now the values are almost equal. That is, the potential difference is equal to the mass difference. What exactly does this mean? That is, how do you analyze this?
 
  • #40
Adams2020 said:
I came back.:smile: I still have a knot in understanding this exercise. :frown:
No problem
Now the values are almost equal.
What about the sign ?
That is, the potential difference is equal to the mass difference.
What about the sign ?
What exactly does this mean? That is, how do you analyze this?
Re-read the thread at leisure :smile:
The notion that mass and energy are "interchangeable" is not easy to grasp (It took an Einstein to find out :wink: )
 
  • #41
BvU said:
What about the sign ?
Yes. I did not pay attention to it. 😕 I thought the exercise was solved!☺
BvU said:
The notion that mass and energy are "interchangeable" is not easy to grasp (It took an Einstein to find out :wink: )
👍🙃🙂
 
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