kelly0303
- 573
- 33
Hello! My question is motivated by this paper (also attached below). They are measuring the mass of a molecular ion in a Penning trap, and they are able to see a difference due to the fact that the molecule gets polarized (the motion is classical and non-relativistic). I was able to derive their result, for an induced electric dipole, using the Lagrangian:
where is the polarization and is the electric field. If we use the fact that we can see from the form of the Lagrangian, if we take the derivative with respect to :
From this we get an effective mass of:
which is consistent with their result. However, I was wondering, if we assume that the molecule is highly (or fully) polarized and not just weakly, instead of we have simply , where is the intrinsic dipole moment of the molecule. However, assuming is constant, which is (very close to being) true for a fully polarized molecule, we have which gives:
now we can't factor out anymore and thus it's not clear anymore how to count towards the mass of the molecule. However, intuitively, I would expect that the higher the polarization, the higher the shift in the measured mass. What am I doing wrong, or how should I interpret the term in this case? Thank you!
where
From this we get an effective mass of:
which is consistent with their result. However, I was wondering, if we assume that the molecule is highly (or fully) polarized and not just weakly, instead of
now we can't factor out