- #1
greypilgrim
- 548
- 38
Hi.
Bell formulated local realism as follows: The probability of a coincidence between separated measurements of particles with correlated (e.g. identical or opposite) orientation properties can be written as
$$P(a,b)=\int{d\lambda\cdot \rho(\lambda)\cdot p_A(a,\lambda)\cdot p_B(b,\lambda)}\enspace .$$
To get a better understanding of the terms "local" and "realistic", I'm trying to adapt this formula. So I'd say a theory that realistic, but not necessarily local, would satisfy
$$P(a,b)=\int{d\lambda\cdot \rho(\lambda)\cdot p_{AB}(a,b,\lambda)}\enspace ,$$
i.e. ##p_{AB}(a,b,\lambda)## is not necessarily a product distribution. As far as I can see quantum expectation values satisfy this probability distribution.
How would this formula look like for a nonrealistic (or not necessarily realistic), but local theory? Or is local realism not something that can be split up into locality and realism?
Bell formulated local realism as follows: The probability of a coincidence between separated measurements of particles with correlated (e.g. identical or opposite) orientation properties can be written as
$$P(a,b)=\int{d\lambda\cdot \rho(\lambda)\cdot p_A(a,\lambda)\cdot p_B(b,\lambda)}\enspace .$$
To get a better understanding of the terms "local" and "realistic", I'm trying to adapt this formula. So I'd say a theory that realistic, but not necessarily local, would satisfy
$$P(a,b)=\int{d\lambda\cdot \rho(\lambda)\cdot p_{AB}(a,b,\lambda)}\enspace ,$$
i.e. ##p_{AB}(a,b,\lambda)## is not necessarily a product distribution. As far as I can see quantum expectation values satisfy this probability distribution.
How would this formula look like for a nonrealistic (or not necessarily realistic), but local theory? Or is local realism not something that can be split up into locality and realism?