Mathematical Induction Problem Fibonacci numbers

In summary, the mathematical induction problem involving Fibonacci numbers demonstrates how to prove properties related to the Fibonacci sequence, such as identities or formulas. The process typically involves establishing a base case, assuming the property holds for a particular integer \( n \), and then showing it must also hold for \( n + 1 \). This method effectively confirms the validity of various assertions about Fibonacci numbers, reinforcing their mathematical significance and relationships.
  • #1
issacnewton
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Homework Statement
Prove that the number of ##n## digit binary numbers that have no consecutive 1's is the Fibonacci number ##F_{n+2}##. For example, for ##n=2## there are three such numbers ##(00, 01, 10)##, and ##3 = F_{2+2} = F_4##. Also, for ##n=3## there are five such numbers ##(000, 001, 010, 100, 101)##, and ##5 = F_{3+2} = F_5##.
Relevant Equations
Mathematical Induction and Fibonacci sequence.
I have already shown base case above for ##n=2##. Let ##k \geq 2## be some arbitrary in ##\mathbb{N}##. Suppose the statement is true for ##k##. So, this means that, number of k-digit binary numbers that have no consecutive 1's is the Fibonacci number ##F_{k+2}##. And I have to prove that number of (k+1)-digit binary numbers that have no consecutive 1's is the Fibonacci number ##F_{k+3}##. Actually, I have no clue where to start on this after the base case. I need help. This problem could have easier solution using combinatorics but I need to use induction here.

Thanks
 
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  • #2
Whatever you do, you need to find a way to count the additional binary numbers that add up with every step of increasing the length by one. If ##M(n)## is the set of described binary numbers of length ##n## then we need to know that
$$
|M(n+1)|=|M(n)|+|M(n-1)| \text{ or } |M(n+1)\backslash M(n)|=|M(n+1)|-|M(n)|=|M(n-1)|
$$
The rest is covered by the induction hypothesis. But there is no way around counting (additional) strings.
 
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  • #3
Looking at the identities you have written, I think, we need to use strong induction here. Is that right ?
 
  • #4
issacnewton said:
Looking at the identities you have written, I think, we need to use strong induction here. Is that right ?
Yes. If you look at the strings and in particular at the leading ##1## then the formula becomes apparent.
 
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  • #5
Sorry about my earlier post (which I deleted), it was a notational/grammatical mess ?:) and I hope no one saw it.

Define ##S_k## as the set of ##k##-length 2-bit strings with no consecutive 1s, and ##c(S_k)## as the number of elements in that set.

For the base case, ##S_0=\{\emptyset\}## and ##c(S_0)=1=F_{0+2}.## ##S_1=\{0,1\}## and ##c(S_1)=2=F_{1+2}##.

For the induction hypothesis, assume that for ##2\leq j\leq k##, ##c(S_j)=F_{j+2}=F_{j+1}+F_j##.

Any ##k##-length string that ends with 0 can be extended to become two ##(k+1)##-length strings that end with 0 and 1. Similarly a ##k##-length string that ends with 1 can be extended to become one ##(k+1)##-length string that ends with 0. (You can check that these two operations on ##S_{k}## give you all the elements in ##S_{k+1}##, without repetitions). And so

\begin{align*}c(S_{k+1})=&2\cdot \text{the number of strings in }S_{k}\text{ that end with 0}\\
&+\text{the number of strings in }S_{k}\text{ that end with 1}.\end{align*}

And there exists a one-to-one correspondence between elements in ##S_{k-1}## and elements that end with 0 in ##S_{k}##, and

$$c(S_{k-1})=\text{the number of strings in }S_{k}\text{ that end with 0}.$$

Which gives

$$\text{the number of strings in }S_{k}\text{ that end with 1}=c(S_k)-c(S_{k-1}).$$


Combining these results, we have
\begin{align*}c(S_{k+1})=&2\cdot c(S_k)- [c(S_k)-c(S_{k-1})]\\
=&c(S_k)+c(S_{k-1}).\end{align*}
Having proved that the numbers ##c(S_k)## follow the above recurrence, the rest goes as:
\begin{align*}
c(S_{k+1})=&c(S_k)+c(S_{k-1})\\
=&F_{k+2}+F_{(k-1)+2}\\
=& F_{k+2}+F_{k+1}\\
=&F_{k+3}\\
=&F_{(k+1)+2}\end{align*}
The second line comes by the induction hypothesis and the fourth line comes by the Fibonacci recurrence. Is this a valid proof?
 
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  • #6
Ok, here is my improved version. I am going to use strong induction here. Let ##P(n)## be the statement that number of n-digit binary numbers that have no consecutive 1's is the Fibonacci number ##F_{n+2}##. Now consider the base case of ##n=1##. Here for 1-digit binary numbers, we have possibilities of either ##1## or ##0##. So, just two possibilities. Also, ##F_{1+2} = F_3 = 2##. Hence ##P(1)## is true. Next, consider ##n=2##. There are now three numbers possible ##(00, 01, 10)##. Also, ##F_{2+2} = F_4 = 3##. Hence ##P(2)## is also true.

Now, let ##k \geqslant 2## be arbitrary in ##\mathbb{N}##. Assume that for ##1 \leqslant m \leqslant k ##, ##P(m)## is true. Now consider ##P(k+1)##. We will construct (k+1)-digit binary numbers in the following way. Start with digit ##0##. Apart from ##0##, we have to fill ##k## places. Since ##P(k)## is true, there are ##F_{k+2}## possibilities here. So, we just append that to ##0##, which is the beginning digit. So, there are ##F_{k+2}## ## (k+1)## digit binary numbers if the number is to start with digit ##0##.

Next, we start with digit ##1##. Since, there can not be two consecutive 1's, the following digit must be ##0##. So, first two digits of the number are ##10##. So, we have to fill remaining ##(k+1 - 2) = k-1## places. Since, ##k \geqslant 2##, ##k - 1 \geqslant 1##. So, using induction hypothesis, ##P(k-1)## is true. So, there are ##F_{k-1 + 2} = F_{k+1}## numbers possible. We append these numbers to the string ##10##. So, we get ##F_{k+1}## ## (k+1)## digit binary numbers starting with digit ##1##.

Since, a binary number can start with either ##0## or ##1##, these are only possibilities. Hence, total number of ##(k+1)## digit binary numbers are

$$ F_{k+2} + F_{k+1} $$

Using the recurrence relation for the Fibonacci numbers, ## F_{k+2} + F_{k+1} = F_{k + 3} = F_{(k+1) + 2}##. Hence ##P(k+1)## is true. So, using the principle of strong induction, ##P(n)## is true for all ##n \in \mathbb{N}##.

Is this good enough ?
 
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  • #7
issacnewton said:
Ok, here is my improved version. I am going to use strong induction here. Let ##P(n)## be the statement that number of n-digit binary numbers that have no consecutive 1's is the Fibonacci number ##F_{n+2}##. Now consider the base case of ##n=1##. Here for 1-digit binary numbers, we have possibilities of either ##1## or ##0##. So, just two possibilities. Also, ##F_{1+2} = F_3 = 2##. Hence ##P(1)## is true. Next, consider ##n=2##. There are now three numbers possible ##(00, 01, 10)##. Also, ##F_{2+2} = F_4 = 3##. Hence ##P(2)## is also true.

Now, let ##k \geqslant 2## be arbitrary in ##\mathbb{N}##. Assume that for ##1 \leqslant m \leqslant k ##, ##P(m)## is true. Now consider ##P(k+1)##. We will construct (k+1)-digit binary numbers in the following way. Start with digit ##0##. Apart from ##0##, we have to fill ##k## places. Since ##P(k)## is true, there are ##F_{k+2}## possibilities here. So, we just append that to ##0##, which is the beginning digit. So, there are ##F_{k+2}## ## (k+1)## digit binary numbers if the number is to start with digit ##0##.

Next, we start with digit ##1##. Since, there can not be two consecutive 1's, the following digit must be ##0##. So, first two digits of the number are ##10##. So, we have to fill remaining ##(k+1 - 2) = k-1## places. Since, ##k \geqslant 2##, ##k - 1 \geqslant 1##. So, using induction hypothesis, ##P(k-1)## is true. So, there are ##F_{k-1 + 2} = F_{k+1}## numbers possible. We append these numbers to the string ##10##. So, we get ##F_{k+1}## ## (k+1)## digit binary numbers starting with digit ##1##.

Since, a binary number can start with either ##0## or ##1##, these are only possibilities. Hence, total number of ##(k+1)## digit binary numbers are

$$ F_{k+2} + F_{k+1} $$

Using the recurrence relation for the Fibonacci numbers, ## F_{k+2} + F_{k+1} = F_{k + 3} = F_{(k+1) + 2}##. Hence ##P(k+1)## is true. So, using the principle of strong induction, ##P(n)## is true for all ##n \in \mathbb{N}##.

Is this good enough ?
This is a good solution. But, you spend a lot of time talking about the trivial parts of the proof and hardly mention some key points. I would have done something like this.

A string of ##k + 1## digits must start with 0 or 1, so we consider these two mutually exclusive cases.

If the string starts with 0, then the number of ways of completing the string to avoid consecutive 1's is precisely the number of such strings of length ##k##.

If the string starts with 1, then the second digit must be 0, and the number of ways of completing the string to avoid consecutive 1's is precisely the number of such strings of length ##k-1##.

(Edit: used ##P(k)## instead of ##N(k)##)
We have, therefore, ##N(k+1) = N(k) + N(k-1)##.

That's the core of the proof and is much better isolated like this. You can take that final equation and wrap it up in an inductive argument.

In your proof the critical points are buried in trivial statements about the process of induction. In fact, if I was being really critical, I'm not sure you actually said any of this explicitly.
 
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  • #8
Well, I am just write a lot of words. Just want to make sure that I am as clear as possible. I will learn your brevity. But I did say everything which you wrote.
 
  • #9
PeroK said:
This is a good solution. But, you spend a lot of time talking about the trivial parts of the proof and hardly mention some key points. I would have done something like this.

A string of ##k + 1## digits must start with 0 or 1, so we consider these two mutually exclusive cases.

If the string starts with 0, then the number of ways of completing the string to avoid consecutive 1's is precisely the number of such strings of length ##k##.

If the string starts with 1, then the second digit must be 0, and the number of ways of completing the string to avoid consecutive 1's is precisely the number of such strings of length ##k-1##.

We have, therefore, ##P(k+1) = P(k) + P(k-1)##.

That's the core of the proof and is much better isolated like this. You can take that final equation and wrap it up in an inductive argument.

In your proof the critical points are buried in trivial statements about the process of induction. In fact, if I was being really critical, I'm not sure you actually said any of this explicitly.
Genuine question: if ##P(k)## is a statement, what does it mean to write expressions such as ##P(k) + P(k-1)##? Sorry if I'm slow to follow. Thanks.
 
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  • #10
docnet said:
Genuine question: if ##P(k)## is a statement, is it okay to write expressions such as ##P(k) + P(k-1)##?
I wrongly assumed that ##P(k)## was a number. It should be something like ##N(k)##.
 
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  • #11
PeroK said:
I wrongly assumed that ##P(k)## was a number. It should be something like ##N(k)##.
Aha! That makes sense. thank you.
 
  • #12
issacnewton said:
Well, I am just write a lot of words. Just want to make sure that I am as clear as possible. I will learn your brevity. But I did say everything which you wrote.
It's not so much brevity as being explicit about the critical points. It's only brief because I didn't include the whole proof - only the critical calculation for the inductive step.

If my proof was wrong, it would be much easier to identify where and why it's wrong.

If your proof had a mistake, then it could take ages to figure it out.
 
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FAQ: Mathematical Induction Problem Fibonacci numbers

What is mathematical induction?

Mathematical induction is a proof technique used to establish the truth of an infinite sequence of statements, typically involving natural numbers. It consists of two main steps: the base case, where the statement is verified for the initial value (usually n=1), and the inductive step, where it is shown that if the statement holds for some arbitrary natural number k, it must also hold for k+1.

How do you use mathematical induction to prove properties of Fibonacci numbers?

To prove properties of Fibonacci numbers using mathematical induction, you first identify the property you want to prove. Then, you establish the base case by verifying the property for the first few Fibonacci numbers. Next, you assume the property holds for Fibonacci numbers up to n (the inductive hypothesis) and then show that it must also hold for the Fibonacci number at n+1, thereby completing the inductive step.

Can you provide an example of a statement about Fibonacci numbers that can be proven by induction?

One common example is proving that the nth Fibonacci number, F(n), is given by the formula F(n) = (1/sqrt(5)) * ((phi^n - (1-phi)^n)), where phi is the golden ratio (phi = (1 + sqrt(5))/2). The proof involves verifying the base cases for small values of n and then using the properties of Fibonacci numbers in the inductive step.

What are the Fibonacci numbers?

The Fibonacci numbers are a sequence of numbers where each number is the sum of the two preceding ones, typically starting with 0 and 1. The sequence is defined as follows: F(0) = 0, F(1) = 1, and F(n) = F(n-1) + F(n-2) for n ≥ 2. The first few Fibonacci numbers are 0, 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, and so on.

Why is mathematical induction important in studying Fibonacci numbers?

Mathematical induction is important in studying Fibonacci numbers because it allows mathematicians to rigorously prove various properties and formulas related to the sequence. Many results about Fibonacci numbers, such as identities, relationships with other sequences, and their applications in combinatorics, can be established using induction, providing a solid foundation for further exploration and understanding of their behavior.

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