- #1
mathmari
Gold Member
MHB
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Hey!
Let $\Omega$ a bounded space. Using the maximum principle I have to show that the following problem has an unique solution.
$$u_t(x, t)-\Delta u(x, t)=f(x, t), x \in \Omega,t>0\\ u(x, t)=h(x, t), x\in \partial{\Omega}, t>0 \\ u(x, 0)=g(x), x \in \Omega$$
I have done the following:
We suppose that $u_1$,$u_2$ are two different solutions of the problem, so $w=u_1−u_2$ solves the following two problems:
$$w_t(x,t)-\Delta w(x,t), x \in \Omega, t>0\\ w(x, t)=0, x \in \partial{\Omega}, t>0\\ w(x, 0)=0, x \in \Omega$$
and
$$-w_t(x,t)-\Delta (-w(x,t)), x \in \Omega, t>0\\ -w(x, t)=0, x \in \partial{\Omega}, t>0\\ -w(x, 0)=0, x \in \Omega$$
Since $w_t−\Delta w \leq 0$ from the maximum principle for $w$ we have that
$$\max_{x \in \Omega, t \in [0, T]}w(x, t)=\max_{(\Omega \times \{0\})\cup (\partial{\Omega} \times [0, T])}w(x, t)=0$$
Since $−w_t−\Delta (−w) \leq 0$ from the maximum principle for $−w$ we have that
$$\max_{x \in \Omega, t \in [0, T]}(-w(x, t))=\max_{(\Omega \times \{0\})\cup (\partial{\Omega} \times [0, T])}(-w(x, t))=0$$
Since $\max (−w)=\min (w)$ we have that $w \equiv 0$. So, $u_1=u_2$.
Is this correct?? (Wondering)
Let $\Omega$ a bounded space. Using the maximum principle I have to show that the following problem has an unique solution.
$$u_t(x, t)-\Delta u(x, t)=f(x, t), x \in \Omega,t>0\\ u(x, t)=h(x, t), x\in \partial{\Omega}, t>0 \\ u(x, 0)=g(x), x \in \Omega$$
I have done the following:
We suppose that $u_1$,$u_2$ are two different solutions of the problem, so $w=u_1−u_2$ solves the following two problems:
$$w_t(x,t)-\Delta w(x,t), x \in \Omega, t>0\\ w(x, t)=0, x \in \partial{\Omega}, t>0\\ w(x, 0)=0, x \in \Omega$$
and
$$-w_t(x,t)-\Delta (-w(x,t)), x \in \Omega, t>0\\ -w(x, t)=0, x \in \partial{\Omega}, t>0\\ -w(x, 0)=0, x \in \Omega$$
Since $w_t−\Delta w \leq 0$ from the maximum principle for $w$ we have that
$$\max_{x \in \Omega, t \in [0, T]}w(x, t)=\max_{(\Omega \times \{0\})\cup (\partial{\Omega} \times [0, T])}w(x, t)=0$$
Since $−w_t−\Delta (−w) \leq 0$ from the maximum principle for $−w$ we have that
$$\max_{x \in \Omega, t \in [0, T]}(-w(x, t))=\max_{(\Omega \times \{0\})\cup (\partial{\Omega} \times [0, T])}(-w(x, t))=0$$
Since $\max (−w)=\min (w)$ we have that $w \equiv 0$. So, $u_1=u_2$.
Is this correct?? (Wondering)