- #1
Kindayr
- 161
- 0
Homework Statement
Let [itex]\sigma (E)=\{(x,y):x-y\in E\}[/itex] for any [itex]E\subseteq\mathbb{R}[/itex]. If [itex]E[/itex] has measure zero, then [itex]\sigma (E)[/itex] has measure zero.
The Attempt at a Solution
I'm trying to show that if [itex]\sigma (E)[/itex] is not of measure zero, then there exists a point in [itex]E[/itex] such that [itex]\sigma (\{e\})[/itex] that has positive measure. But i don't know if this actually proves the question.
I have already shown that if [itex]E[/itex] open or a [itex]G_{\delta}[/itex] set, then [itex]\sigma (E)[/itex] is also measurable. Can I use these to solve this?
Any help is appreciated.