- #1
exmarine
- 241
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I think I have clarified one of my questions about Friedman’s metric. When an experimentalist makes a measurement of the spatial distance between two events, say along the x-axis, what exactly is his result? Is it equal to (dx), or is it (adx)?
I thought it was the former. But in cosmology, they seem to say the measured distance between galaxies must vary according to (adx). If that is true, then the time differential measurement in the Schwarzschild metric of an object, say near the event horizon, would have to approach zero, which cannot be true. You could theoretically watch such an object as long as you like, i.e., your measured time differential could be nearly infinite, but the nearly zero coefficient would cancel the time contribution to the proper interval calculation, would it not?
Thanks.
I thought it was the former. But in cosmology, they seem to say the measured distance between galaxies must vary according to (adx). If that is true, then the time differential measurement in the Schwarzschild metric of an object, say near the event horizon, would have to approach zero, which cannot be true. You could theoretically watch such an object as long as you like, i.e., your measured time differential could be nearly infinite, but the nearly zero coefficient would cancel the time contribution to the proper interval calculation, would it not?
Thanks.