- #1
Andrei1
- 36
- 0
Prove that for all \(\displaystyle x,y\in\omega,\ \ x\subset y\vee y\subset x.\)
If I assume that the conclusion is false then I can prove that for some \(\displaystyle a\in x,\ b\in y\) we have \(\displaystyle a\notin b\) and \(\displaystyle b\notin a.\)
Also I am thinking that if assume the contrary then \(\displaystyle \omega\) minus \(\displaystyle \{x\}\) or minus \(\displaystyle \{y\}\) or both is a smaller successor set. Should I try to prove this?
I get stuck in trying to prove for sets from \(\displaystyle \omega\) the equivalence: \(\displaystyle a\subseteq b\wedge a\not=b\Leftrightarrow\exists c(a\cup c^+=b)\).
If I assume that the conclusion is false then I can prove that for some \(\displaystyle a\in x,\ b\in y\) we have \(\displaystyle a\notin b\) and \(\displaystyle b\notin a.\)
Also I am thinking that if assume the contrary then \(\displaystyle \omega\) minus \(\displaystyle \{x\}\) or minus \(\displaystyle \{y\}\) or both is a smaller successor set. Should I try to prove this?
I get stuck in trying to prove for sets from \(\displaystyle \omega\) the equivalence: \(\displaystyle a\subseteq b\wedge a\not=b\Leftrightarrow\exists c(a\cup c^+=b)\).