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Master1022
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- TL;DR Summary
- What is the reasoning behind the minimum tone spacing for coherent FSK?
Hi,
I was reading through some online notes and was wondering: when dealing with coherent FSK, what is the minimum tone spacing and why?
I know that for non-coherent FSK, we can show that the minimum is: ## f_1 - f_0 = \frac{1}{T} ## where ## T ## is the symbol period. However, if we are now dealing with coherent FSK, how can I go about finding the minimum difference required (which will help me find the bandwidth)?
After a quick google search, the only reference I could find to the topic was in some online lecture notes (shown in picture below) which just simply stated that ## f_1 - f_0 = \frac{1}{2T} ## for the minimum without any explanation. I think I must be overlooking something quite obvious. What would be a good starting point for me to be able to derive/understand this property?
Thanks in advance for any help.
I was reading through some online notes and was wondering: when dealing with coherent FSK, what is the minimum tone spacing and why?
I know that for non-coherent FSK, we can show that the minimum is: ## f_1 - f_0 = \frac{1}{T} ## where ## T ## is the symbol period. However, if we are now dealing with coherent FSK, how can I go about finding the minimum difference required (which will help me find the bandwidth)?
After a quick google search, the only reference I could find to the topic was in some online lecture notes (shown in picture below) which just simply stated that ## f_1 - f_0 = \frac{1}{2T} ## for the minimum without any explanation. I think I must be overlooking something quite obvious. What would be a good starting point for me to be able to derive/understand this property?
Thanks in advance for any help.